(a)(1) Informed medical opinion is in agreement that all preparations offered or intended for ophthalmic use, including contact lens solutions, should be sterile. It is further evident that such preparations purport to be of such purity and quality as to be suitable for safe use in the eye.

(2) The Food and Drug Administration concludes that all such preparations, if they are not sterile, fall below their professed standard of purity or quality and may be unsafe. In a statement of policy issued on September 1, 1964, the Food and Drug Administration ruled that liquid preparations offered or intended for ophthalmic use that are not sterile may be regarded as adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), and, further, may be deemed misbranded within the meaning of section 502(j) of the act. By this regulation, this ruling is applicable to all preparations for ophthalmic use that are regulated as medical devices, i.e., contact lens solutions. By the regulation in § 200.50 of this chapter, this ruling is applicable to ophthalmic preparations that are regulated as drugs.

(3) The containers shall be sterile at the time of filling and closing, and the container or individual carton shall be so sealed that the contents cannot be used without destroying the seal. The packaging and labeling of these solutions shall also comply with § 800.12 on tamper-resistant packaging requirements.

(b) Liquid ophthalmic preparations packed in multiple-dose containers should:

(1) Contain one or more suitable and harmless substances that will inhibit the growth of microorganisms; or

(2) Be so packaged as to volume and type of container and so labeled as to duration of use and with such necessary warnings as to afford adequate protection and minimize the hazard of injury resulting from contamination during use.

(c) Eye cups, eye droppers, and other dispensers intended for ophthalmic use should be sterile, and may be regarded as falling below their professed standard of purity or quality if they are not sterile. These articles, which are regulated as medical devices unless packaged with the drugs with which they are to be used, should be packaged so as to maintain sterility until the package is opened and be labeled, on or within the retail package, so as to afford adequate directions and necessary warnings to minimize the hazard of injury resulting from contamination during use.

(a) General. Unless contact lens solutions used, for example, to clean, disinfect, wet, lubricate, rinse, soak, or store contact lenses and salt tablets or other dosage forms to be used to make any such solutions are packaged in tamper-resistant retail packages, there is the opportunity for the malicious adulteration of these products with risks both to individuals who unknowingly purchase adulterated products and with loss of consumer confidence in the security of the packages of over-the-counter (OTC) health care products. The Food and Drug Administration has the authority and responsibility under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) to establish a uniform national standard for tamper-resistant packaging of those OTC products vulnerable to malicious adulteration that will improve the security of OTC packaging and help assure the safety and effectiveness of the products contained therein. A contact lens solution or tablet or other dosage form to be used to make such a solution for retail sale that is not packaged in a tamper-resistant package and labeled in accordance with this section is adulterated under section 501 of the act or misbranded under section 502 of the act, or both.

(b) Requirement for tamper-resistant package. Each manufacturer and packer who packages for retail sale a product regulated as a medical device that is a solution intended for use with contact lenses, e.g., for cleaning, disinfecting, wetting, lubricating, rinsing, soaking, or storing contact lenses or tablets or other dosage forms to be used to make any such solution shall package the product in a tamper-resistant package, if this product is accessible to the public while held for sale. A tamper-resistant package is one having an indicator or barrier to entry which, if breached or missing, can reasonably be expected to provide visible evidence to consumers that tampering has occurred. To reduce the likelihood of substitution of a tamper-resistant feature after tampering, the indicator or barrier to entry is required to be distinctive by design or by the use of an identifying characteristic (e.g., a pattern, name, registered trademark, logo, or picture). For purposes of this section, the term “distinctive by design” means the package cannot be duplicated with commonly available material or through commonly available processes. A tamper-resistant package may involve an immediate-container and closure system or secondary-container or carton system or any combination of systems intended to provide a visual indication of package integrity. The tamper-resistant feature shall be designed to and shall remain intact when handled in a reasonable manner during manufacture, distribution, and retail display.

(c) Labeling. Each retail package of a product covered by this section is required to bear a statement that is prominently placed so that consumers are alerted to the tamper-resistant feature of the package. The labeling statement is also required to be so placed that it will be unaffected if the tamper-resistant feature of the package is breached or missing. If the tamper-resistant feature chosen to meet the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is one that uses an identifying characteristic, that characteristic is required to be referred to in the labeling statement. For example, the labeling statement on a bottle with a shrink band could say “For your protection, this bottle has an imprinted seal around the neck.”

(d) Requests for exemptions from packaging and labeling requirements. A manufacturer or packer may request an exemption from the packaging and labeling requirements of this section. A request for an exemption is required to be submitted in the form of a citizen petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and should be clearly identified on the envelope as a “Request for Exemption from Tamper-resistant Rule.” A petition for an exemption from a requirement of this section is required to contain the same kind of information about the product as is specified for OTC drugs in § 211.132(d) of this chapter.

(e) Products subject to approved premarket approval applications. Holders of approved premarket approval applications for products subject to this section are required to submit supplements to provide for changes in packaging to comply with the requirement of paragraph (b) of this section unless these changes do not affect the composition of the container, the torque (tightness) of the container, or the composition of the closure component in contact with the contents (cap liner or innerseal) as these features are described in the approved premarket approval application. Any supplemental premarket approval application under this paragraph is required to include data sufficient to show that these changes do not adversely affect the product.

(f) Effective date. Each product subject to this section is required to comply with the requirements of this section on the dates listed below except to the extent that a product's manufacturer or packer has obtained an exemption from a packaging or labeling requirement:

(1) Initial effective date for packaging requirements. (i) The packaging requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is effective on February 7, 1983 for each contact lens solution packaged for retail sale on or after that date, except for the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section for a distinctive indicator or barrier to entry.

(ii) The packaging requirement in paragraph (b) of this section is effective on May 5, 1983 for each tablet that is to be used to make a contact lens solution and that is packaged for retail sale on or after that date.

(2) Initial effective date for labeling requirements. The requirement in paragraph (b) of this section that the indicator or barrier to entry be distinctive by design and the requirement in paragraph (c) of this section for a labeling statement are effective on May 5, 1983 for each product subject to this section packaged for retail sale on or after that date, except that the requirement for a specific label reference to any identifying characteristic is effective on February 6, 1984 for each affected product subject to this section packaged for retail sale on or after that date.

(3) Retail level effective date. The tamper-resistant packaging requirement of paragraph (b) of this section is effective on February 6, 1984 for each product subject to this section that is held for sale at retail level on or after that date that was packaged for retail sale before May 5, 1983. This does not include the requirement in paragraph (b) of this section that the indicator or barrier to entry be distinctive by design. Products packaged for retail sale after May 5, 1983, are required to be in compliance with all aspects of the regulations without regard to the retail level effective date.

(a) Purpose. The prevalence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and its risk of transmission in the health care context, have caused the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to look more closely at the quality control of barrier devices, such as surgeons' gloves and patient examination gloves (collectively known as medical gloves) to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV and other blood-borne infectious diseases. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommend that health care workers wear medical gloves to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV and other blood-borne infectious deseases. The CDC recommends that health care workers wear medical gloves when touching blood or other body fluids, mucous membranes, or nonintact skin of all patients; when handling items or surfaces soiled with blood or other body fluids; and when performing venipuncture and other vascular access procedures. Among other things, CDC's recommendation that health care providers wear medical gloves demonstrates the proposition that devices labeled as medical gloves purport to be and are represented to be effective barriers against the transmission of blood- and fluid-borne pathogens. Therefore, FDA, through this regulation, is defining adulteration for patient examination and surgeons' gloves as a means of assuring safe and effective devices.

(1) For a description of a patient examination glove, see § 880.6250. Finger cots, however, are excluded from the test method and sample plans in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(2) For a description of a surgeons' glove, see § 878.4460 of this chapter.

(b)(1) General test method. For the purposes of this part, FDA's analysis of gloves for leaks and visual defects will be conducted by a visual examination and by a water leak test method, using 1,000 milliliters (ml) of water.

(i) Units examined. Each medical glove will be analyzed independently. When packaged as pairs, each glove is considered separately, and both gloves will be analyzed.

(ii) Identification of defects. For this test, defects include leaks detected when tested in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section. A leak is defined as the appearance of water on the outside of the glove. This emergence of water from the glove constitutes a watertight barrier failure. Other defects include tears, embedded foreign objects, extrusions of glove material on the exterior or interior surface of the glove, gloves that are fused together so that individual glove separation is impossible, gloves that adhere to each other and tear when separated, or other visual defects that are likely to affect the barrier integrity.

(iii) Factors for counting defects. One defect in one glove is counted as one defect. A defect in both gloves in a pair of gloves is counted as two defects. If multiple defects, as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, are found in one glove, they are counted as one defect. Visual defects and leaks that are observed in the top 40 millimeters (mm) of a glove will not be counted as a defect for the purposes of this part.

(2) Leak test materials. FDA considers the following to be the minimum materials required for this test :

(i) A 60 mm by 380 mm (clear) plastic cylinder with a hook on one end and a mark scored 40 mm from the other end (a cylinder of another size may be used if it accommodates both cuff diameter and any water above the glove capacity);

(ii) Elastic strapping with velcro or other fastening material;

(iii) Automatic water-dispensing apparatus or manual device capable of delivering 1,000 ml of water;

(iv) Stand with horizontal rod for hanging the hook end of the plastic tube. The horizontal support rod must be capable of holding the weight of the total number of gloves that will be suspended at any one time, e.g., five gloves suspended will weigh about 5 kilograms (kg);

(v) Timer capable of measuring two minute intervals.

(3) Visual defects and leak test procedures. Examine the sample and identify code/lot number, size, and brand as appropriate. Continue the visual examination using the following procedures:

(i) Visual defects examination. Inspect the gloves for visual defects by carefully removing the glove from the wrapper, box, or package. Visually examine each glove for defects. As noted in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a visual defect observed in the top 40 mm of a glove will not be counted as a defect for the purpose of this part. Visually defective gloves do not require further testing, although they must be included in the total number of defective gloves counted for the sample.

(ii) Leak test set-up. (A) During this procedure, ensure that the exterior of the glove remains dry. Attach the glove to the plastic fill tube by bringing the cuff end to the 40 mm mark and fastening with elastic strapping to make a watertight seal.

(B) Add 1,000 ml of room temperature water (i.e., 20 (deg)C to 30 (deg)C) into the open end of the fill tube. The water should pass freely into the glove. (With some larger sizes of long-cuffed surgeons' gloves, the water level may reach only the base of the thumb. With some smaller gloves, the water level may extend several inches up the fill tube.)

(iii) Leak test examination. Immediately after adding the water, examine the glove for water leaks. Do not squeeze the glove; use only minimum manipulation to spread the fingers to check for leaks. Water drops may be blotted to confirm leaking.

(A) If the glove does not leak immediately, keep the glove/filling tube assembly upright and hang the assembly vertically from the horizontal rod, using the wire hook on the open end of the fill tube (do not support the filled glove while transferring).

(B) Make a second observation for leaks 2 minutes after the water is added to the glove. Use only minimum manipulation of the fingers to check for leaks.

(C) Record the number of defective gloves.

(c) Sampling, inspection, acceptance, and adulteration. In performing the test for leaks and other visual defects described in paragraph (b) of this section, FDA will collect and inspect samples of medical gloves, and determine when the gloves are acceptable as set out in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section.

(1) Sample plans. FDA will collect samples from lots of medical gloves in accordance with agency sampling plans. These plans are based on sample sizes, levels of sample inspection, and acceptable quality levels (AQLs) found in the International Standard Organization's standard ISO 2859, “Sampling Procedures For Inspection By Attributes.”

(2) Sample sizes, inspection levels, and minimum AQLs. FDA will use single normal sampling for lots of 1,200 gloves or less and multiple normal sampling for all larger lots. FDA will use general inspection level II in determining the sample size for any lot size. As shown in the tables following paragraph (c)(3) of this section, FDA considers a 1.5 AQL to be the minimum level of quality acceptable for surgeons' gloves and a 2.5 AQL to be the minimum level of quality acceptable for patient examination gloves.

(3) Adulteration levels and accept/reject criteria. FDA considers a lot of medical gloves to be adulterated when the number of defective gloves found in the tested sample meets or exceeds the applicable rejection number at the 1.5 AQL for surgeons' gloves or the 2.5 AQL for patient examination gloves. These acceptance and rejection numbers are identified in the tables following paragraph (c)(3) of this section as follows:

(d) Compliance. Lots of gloves that are sampled, tested, and rejected using procedures in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, are considered adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the act.

(1) Detention and seizure. Lots of gloves that are adulterated under section 501(c) of the act are subject to administrative and judicial action, such as detention of imported products and seizure of domestic products.

(2) Reconditioning. FDA may authorize the owner of the product, or the owner's representative, to attempt to recondition, i.e., bring into compliance with the act, a lot or part of a lot of foreign gloves detained at importation, or a lot or part of a lot of seized domestic gloves.

(i) Modified sampling, inspection, and acceptance. If FDA authorizes reconditioning of a lot or portion of a lot of adulterated gloves, testing to confirm that the reconditioned gloves meet AQLs must be performed by an independent testing facility. The following tightened sampling plan must be followed, as described in ISO 2859 “Sampling Procedures for Inspection by Attributes:”

(A) General inspection level II,

(B) Single sampling plans for tightened inspection,

(C) 1.5 AQL for surgeons' gloves, and

(D) 2.5 AQL for patient examination gloves.

(ii) Adulteration levels and acceptance criteria for reconditioned gloves. (A) FDA considers a lot or part of a lot of adulterated gloves, that is reconditioned in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, to be acceptable when the number of defective gloves found in the tested sample does not exceed the acceptance number in the appropriate tables in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section for reconditioned surgeons' gloves or patient examination gloves.

(B) FDA considers a reconditioned lot of medical gloves to be adulterated within the meaning of section 501(c) of the act when the number of defective gloves found in the tested sample meets or exceeds the applicable rejection number in the tables following paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:

(a) General. This section sets forth the procedures for detention of medical devices intended for human use believed to be adulterated or misbranded. Administrative detention is intended to protect the public by preventing distribution or use of devices encountered during inspections that may be adulterated or misbranded, until the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has had time to consider what action it should take concerning the devices, and to initiate legal action, if appropriate. Devices that FDA orders detained may not be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner by any person during the detention period, except as authorized under paragraph (h) of this section, until FDA terminates the detention order under paragraph (j) of this section, or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.

(b) Criteria for ordering detention. Administrative detention of devices may be ordered in accordance with this section when an authorized FDA representative, during an inspection under section 704 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), has reason to believe that a device, as defined in section 201(h) of the act, is adulterated or misbranded.

(c) Detention period. The detention is to be for a reasonable period that may not exceed 20 calendar days after the detention order is issued, unless the FDA District Director in whose district the devices are located determines that a greater period is required to seize the devices, to institute injuction proceedings, or to evaluate the need for legal action, in which case the District Director may authorize detention for 10 additional calendar days. The additional 10-calendar-day detention period may be ordered at the time the detention order is issued or at any time thereafter. The entire detention period may not exceed 30 calendar days, except when the detention period is extended under paragraph (g)(6) of this section. An authorized FDA representative may, in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section, terminate a detention before the expiration of the detention period.

(d) Issuance of detention order. (1) The detention order shall be issued in writing, in the form of a detention notice, signed by the authorized FDA representative who has reason to believe that the devices are adulterated or misbranded, and issued to the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the devices are located. If the owner or the user of the devices is different from the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the place where the devices are detained, a copy of the detention order shall be provided to the owner or user of the devices if the owner's or user's identity can be readily determined.

(2) If detention of devices in a vehicle or other carrier is ordered, a copy of the detention order shall be provided to the shipper of record and the owner of the vehicle or other carrier, if their identities can be readily determined.

(3) The detention order shall include the following information:

(i) A statement that the devices identified in the order are detained for the period shown;

(ii) A brief, general statement of the reasons for the detention;

(iii) The location of the devices;

(iv) A statement that these devices are not to be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner during that period, except as permitted under paragraph (h) of this section, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative;

(v) Identification of the detained devices;

(vi) The detention order number;

(vii) The date and hour of the detention order;

(viii) The period of the detention;

(ix) The text of section 304(g) of the act and paragraph (g) (1) and (2) of this section;

(x) A statement that any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order shall be conducted as a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter, with certain exceptions described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and

(xi) The location and telephone number of the FDA district office and the name of the FDA District Director.

(e) Approval of detention order. A detention order, before issuance, shall be approved by the FDA District Director in whose district the devices are located. If prior written approval is not feasible, prior oral approval shall be obtained and confirmed by written memorandum within FDA as soon as possible.

(f) Labeling or marking a detained device. An FDA representative issuing a detention order under paragraph (d) of this section shall label or mark the devices with official FDA tags that include the following information:

(1) A statement that the devices are detained by the United States Government in accordance with section 304(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 334(g)).

(2) A statement that the devices shall not be used, moved, altered, or tampered with in any manner for the period shown, without the written permission of an authorized FDA representative, except as authorized in paragraph (h) of this section.

(3) A statement that the violation of a detention order or the removal or alteration of the tag is punishable by fine or imprisonment or both (section 303 of the act, 21 U.S.C. 333).

(4) The detention order number, the date and hour of the detention order, the detention period, and the name of the FDA representative who issued the detention order.

(g) Appeal of a detention order. (1) A person who would be entitled to claim the devices, if seized, may appeal a detention order. Any appeal shall be submitted in writing to the FDA District Director in whose district the devices are located within 5 working days of receipt of a detention order. If the appeal includes a request for an informal hearing, as defined in section 201(x) of the act, the appellant shall request either that a hearing be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed or that the hearing be held at a later date, which shall not be later than 20 calendar days after receipt of a detention order.

(2) The appellant of a detention order shall state the ownership or proprietary interest the appellant has in the detained devices. If the detained devices are located at a place other than an establishment owned or operated by the appellant, the appellant shall include documents showing that the appellant would have legitimate authority to claim the devices if seized.

(3) Any informal hearing on an appeal of a detention order shall be conducted as a regulatory hearing pursuant to regulation in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, except that:

(i) The detention order under paragraph (d) of this section, rather than the notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter.

(ii) A request for a hearing under this section should be addressed to the FDA District Director.

(iii) The last sentence of § 16.24(e) of this chapter, stating that a hearing may not be required to be held at a time less than 2 working days after receipt of the request for a hearing, does not apply to a hearing under this section.

(iv) Paragraph (g)(4) of this section, rather than § 16.42(a) of this chapter, describes the FDA employees, i.e., Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Directors or other FDA officials senior to an FDA District Director, who preside at hearings under this section.

(4) The presiding officer of a regulatory hearing on an appeal of a detention order, who also shall decide the appeal, shall be an Office of Regulatory Affairs Program Director or another FDA official senior to an FDA District Director who is permitted by § 16.42(a) of this chapter to preside over the hearing.

(5) If the appellant requests a regulatory hearing and requests that the hearing be held within 5 working days after the appeal is filed, the presiding officer shall, within 5 working days, hold the hearing and render a decision affirming or revoking the detention.

(6) If the appellant requests a regulatory hearing and requests that the hearing be held at a date later than within 5 working days after the appeal is filed, but not later than 20 calendar days after receipt of a detention order, the presiding officer shall hold the hearing at a date agreed upon by FDA and the appellant. The presiding officer shall decide whether to affirm or revoke the detention within 5 working days after the conclusion of the hearing. The detention period extends to the date of the decision even if the 5-working-day period for making the decision extends beyond the otherwise applicable 20-calendar-day or 30-calendar-day detention period.

(7) If the appellant appeals the detention order but does not request a regulatory hearing, the presiding officer shall render a decision on the appeal affirming or revoking the detention within 5 working days after the filing of the appeal.

(8) If the presiding officer affirms a detention order, the devices continue to be detained until FDA terminates the detention under paragraph (j) of this section or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.

(9) If the presiding officer revokes a detention order, FDA shall terminate the detention under paragraph (j) of this section.

(h)(1) Movement of detained devices. Except as provided in this paragraph, no person shall move detained devices within or from the place where they have been ordered detained until FDA terminates the detention under paragraph (j) of this section or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.

(2) If detained devices are not in final form for shipment, the manufacturer may move them within the establishment where they are detained to complete the work needed to put them in final form. As soon as the devices are moved for this purpose, the individual responsible for their movement shall orally notify the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible district office official, of the movement of the devices. As soon as the devices are put in final form, they shall be segregated from other devices, and the individual responsible for their movement shall orally notify the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible district office official, of their new location. The devices put in final form shall not be moved further without FDA approval.

(3) The FDA representative who issued the detention order, or another responsible district office official, may approve, in writing, the movement of detained devices for any of the following purposes:

(i) To prevent interference with an establishment's operations or harm to the devices.

(ii) To destroy the devices.

(iii) To bring the devices into compliance.

(iv) For any other purpose that the FDA representative who issued the detention order, or other responsible district office official, believes is appropriate in the case.

(4) If an FDA representative approves the movement of detained devices under paragraph (h)(3) of this section, the detained devices shall remain segregated from other devices and the person responsible for their movement shall immediately orally notify the official who approved the movement of the devices, or another responsible FDA district office official, of the new location of the detained devices.

(5) Unless otherwise permitted by the FDA representative who is notified of, or who approves, the movement of devices under this paragraph, the required tags shall accompany the devices during and after movement and shall remain with the devices until FDA terminates the detention or the detention period expires, whichever occurs first.

(i) Actions involving adulterated or misbranded devices. If FDA determines that the detained devices, including any that have been put in final form, are adulterated or misbranded, or both, it may initiate legal action against the devices or the responsible individuals, or both, or request that the devices be destroyed or otherwise brought into compliance with the act under FDA's supervision.

(j) Detention termination. If FDA decides to terminate a detention or when the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, an FDA representative authorized to terminate a detention will issue a detention termination notice releasing the devices to any person who received the original detention order or that person's representative and will remove, or authorize in writing the removal of, the required labels or tags.

(k) Recordkeeping requirements. (1) After issuance of a detention order under paragraph (d) of this section, the owner, operator, or agent in charge of any factory, warehouse, other establishment, or consulting laboratory where detained devices are manufactured, processed, packed, or held shall have, or establish, and maintain adequate records relating to how the detained devices may have become adulterated or misbranded, records on any distribution of the devices before and after the detention period, records on the correlation of any in-process detained devices that are put in final form under paragraph (h) of this section to the completed devices, records of any changes in, or processing of, the devices permitted under the detention order, and records of any other movement under paragraph (h) of this section. Records required under this paragraph shall be provided to the FDA on request for review and copying. Any FDA request for access to records required under this paragraph shall be made at a reasonable time, shall state the reason or purpose for the request, and shall identify to the fullest extent practicable the information or type of information sought in the records to which access is requested.

(2) Records required under this paragraph shall be maintained for a maximum period of 2 years after the issuance of the detention order or for such other shorter period as FDA directs. When FDA terminates the detention or when the detention period expires, whichever occurs first, FDA will advise all persons required under this paragraph to keep records concerning that detention whether further recordkeeping is required for the remainder of the 2-year, or shorter, period. FDA ordinarily will not require further recordkeeping if the agency determines that the devices are not adulterated or misbranded or that recordkeeping is not necessary to protect the public health, unless the records are required under other regulations in this chapter (e.g., the good manufacturing practice regulation in part 820 of this chapter).

(a) Definitions. The following definitions shall apply to this section:

(1) FDA means the Food and Drug Administration.

(2) 517A decision means a significant decision made by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, as set forth in section 517A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and includes one of the following decisions:

(i) A substantially equivalent order under § 807.100(a)(1) of this chapter, or a not substantially equivalent order under § 807.100(a)(2) of this chapter;

(ii) An approval order under § 814.44(d) of this chapter, an approvable letter under § 814.44(e) of this chapter, a not approvable letter under § 814.44(f) of this chapter, or an order denying approval under § 814.45 of this chapter;

(iii) An approval order under § 814.116(b) of this chapter, an approvable letter under § 814.116(c) of this chapter, a not approvable letter under § 814.116(d) of this chapter, or an order denying approval under § 814.118 of this chapter;

(iv) A grant or denial of a request for breakthrough device designation under section 515B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;

(v) An approval order under § 812.30(a) of this chapter or a disapproval order under § 812.30(c) of this chapter;

(vi) A failure to reach agreement letter under section 520(g)(7) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or

(vii) A clinical hold determination under section 520(g)(8) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(3) CDRH means the Center for Devices and Radiological Health.

(b) Submission of request - (1) Review of 517A decisions. (i) An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of a 517A decision under § 10.75 of this chapter must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision; submitted in electronic format in accordance with section 745A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; marked “Appeal: Request for Supervisory Review”; and received by CDRH no later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved. Any such request for supervisory review not received by CDRH within 30 days after the date of the decision involved is not eligible for review. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, FDA will render a decision within 45 days of the request for supervisory review.

(ii) A person requesting supervisory review under paragraph (b)(1)(i) may request an in-person meeting or teleconference with the supervisor reviewing the request for supervisory review. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, if a request for in-person meeting or teleconference is included in the request for supervisory review to CDRH, CDRH will schedule the meeting or teleconference to occur within 30 days of receipt of the request. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a decision will be rendered within 30 days of such meeting or teleconference.

(iii) The timeframes for CDRH to render a decision provided in (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, and the timeframe to schedule an in-person meeting or teleconference review in (b)(1)(ii) of this section, do not apply if a matter related to the 517A decision under review is referred by CDRH to external experts, such as an advisory committee, as provided in § 10.75(b) of this chapter.

(2) Supervisory review. An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH under § 10.75 of this chapter of a decision other than a 517A decision that is not received by CDRH within 60 days after the date of the decision involved will be denied as untimely, unless CDRH, for good cause, permits the request to be filed after 60 days. An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of a decision other than a 517A decision must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision; submitted in electronic format in accordance with section 745A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, when applicable; marked, “Appeal: Request for Supervisory Review” in the subject line of the electronic request; and sent to the CDRH Ombudsman at CDRHOmbudsman@fda.hhs.gov.

(a) The label of a device in package form shall specify conspicuously the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

(b) The requirement for declaration of the name of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor shall be deemed to be satisfied, in the case of a corporation, only by the actual corporate name which may be preceded or followed by the name of the particular division of the corporation. Abbreviations for “Company,” “Incorporated,” etc., may be used and “The” may be omitted. In the case of an individual, partnership, or association, the name under which the business is conducted shall be used.

(c) Where a device is not manufactured by the person whose name appears on the label, the name shall be qualified by a phrase that reveals the connection such person has with such device; such as, “Manufactured for ___”, “Distributed by _____”, or any other wording that expresses the facts.

(d) The statement of the place of business shall include the street address, city, State, and Zip Code; however, the street address may be omitted if it is shown in a current city directory or telephone directory. The requirement for inclusion of the ZIP Code shall apply only to consumer commodity labels developed or revised after the effective date of this section. In the case of nonconsumer packages, the ZIP Code shall appear on either the label or the labeling (including the invoice).

(e) If a person manufactures, packs, or distributes a device at a place other than his principal place of business, the label may state the principal place of business in lieu of the actual place where such device was manufactured or packed or is to be distributed, unless such statement would be misleading.

As used in this part:

Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC) means any technology that conveys the unique device identifier or the device identifier of a device in a form that can be entered into an electronic patient record or other computer system via an automated process.

Center Director means the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, depending on which Center has been assigned lead responsibility for the device.

Combination product has the meaning set forth in § 3.2(e) of this chapter.

Convenience kit means two or more different medical devices packaged together for the convenience of the user.

Device package means a package that contains a fixed quantity of a particular version or model of a device.

Expiration date means the date by which the label of a device states the device must or should be used.

FDA, we, or us means the Food and Drug Administration.

Finished device means any device or accessory to any device that is suitable for use or capable of functioning.

Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) means the database that serves as a repository of information to facilitate the identification of medical devices through their distribution and use.

Human cells, tissues, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

Implantable device means a device that is intended to be placed in a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body. A device is regarded as an implantable device for the purpose of this part only if it is intended to remain implanted continuously for a period of 30 days or more, unless the Commissioner of Food and Drugs determines otherwise in order to protect human health.

Label has the meaning set forth in section 201(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

Labeler means:

(1) Any person who causes a label to be applied to a device with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any intended subsequent replacement or modification of the label; and

(2) Any person who causes the label of a device to be replaced or modified with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any subsequent replacement or modification of the label, except that the addition of the name of, and contact information for, a person who distributes the device, without making any other changes to the label, is not a modification for the purposes of determining whether a person is a labeler.

Lot or batch means one finished device or more that consist of a single type, model, class, size, composition, or software version that are manufactured under essentially the same conditions and that are intended to have uniform characteristics and quality within specified limits.

Shipping container means a container used during the shipment or transportation of devices, and whose contents may vary from one shipment to another.

Specification means any requirement with which a device must conform.

Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured;

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

Universal product code (UPC) means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.

Version or model means all devices that have specifications, performance, size, and composition, within limits set by the labeler.

The words intended uses or words of similar import in §§ 801.5, 801.119, and 801.122 refer to the objective intent of the persons legally responsible for the labeling of devices. The intent is determined by such persons' expressions or may be shown by the circumstances surrounding the distribution of the article. This objective intent may, for example, be shown by labeling claims, advertising matter, or oral or written statements by such persons or their representatives. It may be shown by the circumstances that the article is, with the knowledge of such persons or their representatives, offered and used for a purpose for which it is neither labeled nor advertised. The intended uses of an article may change after it has been introduced into interstate commerce by its manufacturer. If, for example, a packer, distributor, or seller intends an article for different uses than those intended by the person from whom he received the devices, such packer, distributor, or seller is required to supply adequate labeling in accordance with the new intended uses. But if a manufacturer knows, or has knowledge of facts that would give him notice that a device introduced into interstate commerce by him is to be used for conditions, purposes, or uses other than the ones for which he offers it, he is required to provide adequate labeling for such a device which accords with such other uses to which the article is to be put.

Adequate directions for use means directions under which the layman can use a device safely and for the purposes for which it is intended. Section 801.4 defines intended use. Directions for use may be inadequate because, among other reasons, of omission, in whole or in part, or incorrect specification of:

(a) Statements of all conditions, purposes, or uses for which such device is intended, including conditions, purposes, or uses for which it is prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its oral, written, printed, or graphic advertising, and conditions, purposes, or uses for which the device is commonly used; except that such statements shall not refer to conditions, uses, or purposes for which the device can be safely used only under the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law and for which it is advertised solely to such practitioner.

(b) Quantity of dose, including usual quantities for each of the uses for which it is intended and usual quantities for persons of different ages and different physical conditions.

(c) Frequency of administration or application.

(d) Duration of administration or application.

(e) Time of administration or application, in relation to time of meals, time of onset of symptoms, or other time factors.

(f) Route or method of administration or application.

(g) Preparation for use, i.e., adjustment of temperature, or other manipulation or process.

Among representations in the labeling of a device which render such device misbranded is a false or misleading representation with respect to another device or a drug or food or cosmetic.

(a) A word, statement, or other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label may lack that prominence and conspicuousness required by section 502(c) of the act by reason, among other reasons, of:

(1) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on the part or panel of the label which is presented or displayed under customary conditions of purchase;

(2) The failure of such word, statement, or information to appear on two or more parts or panels of the label, each of which has sufficient space therefor, and each of which is so designed as to render it likely to be, under customary conditions of purchase, the part or panel displayed;

(3) The failure of the label to extend over the area of the container or package available for such extension, so as to provide sufficient label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information;

(4) Insufficiency of label space for the prominent placing of such word, statement, or information, resulting from the use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label;

(5) Insufficiency of label space for the placing of such word, statement, or information, resulting from the use of label space to give materially greater conspicuousness to any other word, statement, or information, or to any design or device; or

(6) Smallness or style of type in which such word, statement, or information appears, insufficient background contrast, obscuring designs or vignettes, or crowding with other written, printed, or graphic matter.

(b) No exemption depending on insufficiency of label space, as prescribed in regulations promulgated under section 502(b) of the act, shall apply if such insufficiency is caused by:

(1) The use of label space for any word, statement, design, or device which is not required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label;

(2) The use of label space to give greater conspicuousness to any word, statement, or other information than is required by section 502(c) of the act; or

(3) The use of label space for any representation in a foreign language.

(c)(1)(i) All words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling for a device shall appear thereon in one or more of the following formats:

(A) The English language;

(B) In the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be substituted for English;

(C) A symbol accompanied by adjacent explanatory English text, or text in the predominant language of the Territory, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English;

(D) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:

(1) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the act;

(2) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and

(3) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used;

(E) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:

(1) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);

(2) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;

(3) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the act;

(4) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and

(5) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used;

(F) The symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” may be used as provided under § 801.109(b)(1).

(ii) The use of symbols in device labeling which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the act.

(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section:

(A) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (i.e., open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.

(B) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:

(1) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;

(2) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;

(3) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and

(4) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.

(2) If the label contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label shall appear thereon in the foreign language.

(3) If the labeling contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the act to appear on the label or labeling shall appear on the labeling in the foreign language.

If devices restricted to prescription use only are labeled solely in Spanish for distribution in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico where Spanish is the predominant language, such labeling is authorized under § 801.15(c).

(a) In general. Whenever the label of a medical device includes a printed expiration date, date of manufacture, or any other date intended to be brought to the attention of the user of the device, the date must be presented in the following format: The year, using four digits; followed by the month, using two digits; followed by the day, using two digits; each separated by hyphens. For example, January 2, 2014, must be presented as 2014-01-02.

(b) Exceptions. (1) A combination product that properly bears a National Drug Code (NDC) number is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.

(2) If the device is an electronic product to which a standard is applicable under subchapter J of this chapter, Radiological Health, the date of manufacture shall be presented as required by § 1010.3(a)(2)(ii) of this chapter.

(a) In general. (1) The label of every medical device shall bear a unique device identifier (UDI) that meets the requirements of this subpart and part 830 of this chapter.

(2) Every device package shall bear a UDI that meets the requirements of this subpart and part 830 of this chapter.

(b) Exceptions. Exceptions to the general rule of paragraph (a) of this section are provided by §§ 801.30, 801.45, and 801.128(f)(2), and § 801.55 provides a means to request an exception or alternative not provided by those provisions.

(a) In general. The following types of devices are excepted from the requirement of § 801.20; a device within one or more of the following exceptions is not required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI):

(1) A finished device manufactured and labeled prior to the compliance date established by FDA for § 801.20 regarding the device. This exception expires with regard to a particular device 3 years after the compliance date established by FDA for the device.

(2) A class I device that FDA has by regulation exempted from the good manufacturing practice requirements of part 820 of this chapter, exclusive of any continuing requirement for recordkeeping under §§ 820.180 and 820.198.

(3) Individual single-use devices, all of a single version or model, that are distributed together in a single device package, intended to be stored in that device package until removed for use, and which are not intended for individual commercial distribution. This exception is not available for any implantable device. The device package containing these individual devices is not excepted from the requirement of § 801.20, and must bear a UDI.

(4) A device used solely for research, teaching, or chemical analysis, and not intended for any clinical use.

(5) A custom device within the meaning of § 812.3(b) of this chapter.

(6) An investigational device within the meaning of part 812 of this chapter.

(7) A veterinary medical device not intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions in man, in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man, or intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man.

(8) A device intended for export from the United States.

(9) A device held by the Strategic National Stockpile and granted an exception or alternative under § 801.128(f)(2).

(10) A device for which FDA has established a performance standard under section 514(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and has provided therein an exception from the requirement of § 801.20, or for which FDA has recognized all or part of a performance standard under section 514(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and has included an exception from the requirement of § 801.20 within the scope of that recognition.

(11) A device packaged within the immediate container of a combination product or convenience kit, provided that the label of the combination product or convenience kit bears a UDI.

(b) National Drug Code (NDC) Numbers. If a combination product properly bears an NDC number on its label -

(1) The combination product is not subject to the requirements of § 801.20.

(2) A device constituent of such a combination product whose components are physically, chemically, or otherwise combined or mixed and produced as a single entity as described by § 3.2(e)(1) of this chapter is not subject to the requirements of § 801.20.

(3) Each device constituent of such a combination product, other than one described by § 3.2(e)(1) of this chapter, must bear a UDI on its label unless paragraph (a)(11) of this section applies.

(c) Exception for shipping containers. This rule does not require a UDI to be placed on any shipping container.

(d) The UDI of a class I device is not required to include a production identifier.

(a) The labeler of a device that is not required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI) may voluntarily comply with § 801.20. If a labeler voluntarily includes a UDI for a device, the labeler may voluntarily provide information concerning the device under subpart E of part 830 of this chapter.

(b) A device may bear both a Universal Product Code (UPC) and a UDI on its label and packages.

(a) Every unique device identifier (UDI) must meet the technical requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. The UDI must be presented in two forms:

(1) Easily readable plain-text, and

(2) Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC) technology.

(b) The UDI must include a device identifier segment. Whenever a device label includes a lot or batch number, a serial number, a manufacturing date, an expiration date, or for a human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device, a distinct identification code as required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter, the UDI must include a production identifier segment that conveys such information.

(c) If the AIDC technology is not evident upon visual examination of the label or device package, the label or device package must disclose the presence of AIDC technology.

(d) A class I device that bears a Universal Product Code (UPC) on its label and device packages is deemed to meet all requirements of subpart B of this part. The UPC will serve as the unique device identifier required by § 801.20.

(a) In general. A device that must bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label must also bear a permanent marking providing the UDI on the device itself if the device is intended to be used more than once and intended to be reprocessed before each use.

(b) UDI for direct marking. The UDI provided through a direct marking on a device may be:

(1) Identical to the UDI that appears on the label of the device, or

(2) A different UDI used to distinguish the unpackaged device from any device package containing the device.

(c) Form of a UDI when provided as a direct marking. When a device must bear a UDI as a direct marking, the UDI may be provided through either or both of the following:

(1) Easily readable plain-text;

(2) Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC) technology, or any alternative technology, that will provide the UDI of the device on demand.

(d) Exceptions. The requirement of paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any device that meets any of the following criteria:

(1) Any type of direct marking would interfere with the safety or effectiveness of the device;

(2) The device cannot be directly marked because it is not technologically feasible;

(3) The device is a single-use device and is subjected to additional processing and manufacturing for the purpose of an additional single use.

(4) The device has been previously marked under paragraph (a) of this section.

(e) Exception to be noted in design history file. A labeler that decides to make use of an exception under paragraph (d of this section) must document the basis of that decision in the design history file required by § 820.30(j) of this chapter.

(a) Stand-alone software that is not distributed in packaged form (e.g., when downloaded from a Web site) is deemed to meet the UDI labeling requirements of this subpart if it complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and conveys the version number in its production identifier.

(b) Regardless of whether it is or is not distributed in packaged form, stand-alone software regulated as a medical device must provide its unique device identifier through either or both of the following:

(1) An easily readable plain-text statement displayed whenever the software is started;

(2) An easily readable plain-text statement displayed through a menu command (e.g., an “About * * *” command).

(c) Stand-alone software that is distributed in both packaged form and in a form that is not packaged (e.g., when downloaded from a Web site) may be identified with the same device identifier.

(a) A labeler may submit a request for an exception from or alternative to the requirement of § 801.20 or any other requirement of this subpart for a specified device or a specified type of device. A written request for an exception or alternative must:

(1) Identify the device or devices that would be subject to the exception or alternative;

(2) Identify the provisions of this subpart that are the subject of the request for an exception or alternative;

(3) If requesting an exception, explain why you believe the requirements of this subpart are not technologically feasible;

(4) If requesting an alternative, describe the alternative and explain why it would provide for more accurate, precise, or rapid device identification than the requirements of this subpart or how the alternative would better ensure the safety or effectiveness of the device that would be subject to the alternative;

(5) Provide, if known, the number of labelers and the number of devices that would be affected if we grant the requested exception or alternative; and

(6) Provide other requested information that the Center Director needs to clarify the scope and effects of the requested exception or alternative.

(b) A written request for an exception or alternative must be submitted by sending it:

(1) If the device is regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), by email to: cberudirequests@fda.hhs.gov or by correspondence to: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993.

(2) In all other cases, by email to: GUDIDSupport@fda.hhs.gov, or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3303, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.

(c) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative, either in response to a request or on his or her own initiative, if the Center Director determines that an exception is appropriate because the requirements of this subpart are not technologically feasible, or that an alternative would provide for more accurate, precise, or rapid device identification than the requirements of this subpart or would better ensure the safety or effectiveness of the device that would be subject to the alternative. If we grant an exception or alternative, we may include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate to ensure the adequate identification of the device through its distribution and use. Any labeler may make use of an exception or alternative granted under this section, provided that such use satisfies all safeguards or conditions that are part of the exception or alternative.

(d) FDA may initiate and grant an exception or alternative if we determine that the exception or alternative is in the best interest of the public health. Any such exception or alternative will remain in effect only so long as there remains a public health need for the exception or alternative.

(e) The Center Director may rescind an exception or alternative granted under this section if, after providing an opportunity for an informal hearing as defined in section 201(x) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under part 16 of this chapter, the Center Director determines that the exception or alternative no longer satisfies the criteria described in this paragraph (e) or that any safeguard or condition required under this paragraph (e) has not been met.

(a) On the date your device must bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label, any National Health-Related Item Code (NHRIC) or National Drug Code (NDC) number assigned to that device is rescinded, and you may no longer provide an NHRIC or NDC number on the label of your device or on any device package.

(b) If your device is not required to bear a UDI on its label, any NHRIC or NDC number assigned to that device is rescinded as of September 24, 2018, and beginning on that date, you may no longer provide an NHRIC or NDC number of the label of your device or on any device package.

(c) A labeler who has been assigned an FDA labeler code to facilitate use of NHRIC or NDC numbers may continue to use that labeler code under a system for the issuance of UDIs, provided that -

(1) Such use is consistent with the framework of the issuing agency that operates that system; and

(2) No later than September 24, 2014, the labeler submits, and obtains FDA approval of, a request for continued use of the assigned labeler code. A request for continued use of an assigned labeler code must be submitted by email to: GUDIDSupport@fda.hhs.gov, or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3303, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.

(d) Each request for continued use of an assigned labeler code must provide -

(1) The name, mailing address, email address, and phone number of the labeler who is currently using the labeler code;

(2) The owner/operator account identification used by the labeler to submit registration and listing information using FDA's Unified Registration and Listing System (FURLS).

(3) The FDA labeler code that the labeler wants to continue using.

The term principal display panel, as it applies to over-the-counter devices in package form and as used in this part, means the part of a label that is most likely to be displayed, presented, shown, or examined under customary conditions of display for retail sale. The principal display panel shall be large enough to accommodate all the mandatory label information required to be placed thereon by this part with clarity and conspicuousness and without obscuring designs, vignettes, or crowding. Where packages bear alternate principal display panels, information required to be placed on the principal display panel shall be duplicated on each principal display panel. For the purpose of obtaining uniform type size in declaring the quantity of contents for all packages of substantially the same size, the term area of the principal display panel means the area of the side or surface that bears the principal display panel, which area shall be:

(a) In the case of a rectangular package where one entire side properly can be considered to be the principal display panel side, the product of the height times the width of that side;

(b) In the case of a cylindrical or nearly cylindrical container, 40 percent of the product of the height of the container times the circumference; and

(c) In the case of any other shape of container, 40 percent of the total surface of the container: Provided, however, That where such container presents an obvious “principal display panel” such as the top of a triangular or circular package, the area shall consist of the entire top surface.

(a) The principal display panel of an over-the-counter device in package form shall bear as one of its principal features a statement of the identity of the commodity.

(b) Such statement of identity shall be in terms of the common name of the device followed by an accurate statement of the principal intended action(s) of the device. Such statement shall be placed in direct conjunction with the most prominent display of the name and shall employ terms descriptive of the principal intended action(s). The indications for use shall be included in the directions for use of the device, as required by section 502(f)(1) of the act and by the regulations in this part.

(c) The statement of identity shall be presented in bold face type on the principal display panel, shall be in a size reasonably related to the most prominent printed matter on such panel, and shall be in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed.

(a) The label of an over-the-counter device in package form shall bear a declaration of the net quantity of contents. This shall be expressed in the terms of weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of numerical count and weight, measure, or size: Provided, That:

(1) In the case of a firmly established general consumer usage and trade custom of declaring the quantity of a device in terms of linear measure or measure of area, such respective term may be used. Such term shall be augmented when necessary for accuracy of information by a statement of the weight, measure, or size of the individual units or of the entire device.

(2) If the declaration of contents for a device by numerical count does not give accurate information as to the quantity of the device in the package, it shall be augmented by such statement of weight, measure, or size of the individual units or of the total weight, measure, or size of the device as will give such information; for example, “100 tongue depressors, adult size”, “1 rectal syringe, adult size”, etc. Whenever the Commissioner determines for a specific packaged device that an existing practice of declaring net quantity of contents by weight, measure, numerical count, or a combination of these does not facilitate value comparisions by consumers, he shall by regulation designate the appropriate term or terms to be used for such article.

(b) Statements of weight of the contents shall be expressed in terms of avoirdupois pound and ounce. A statement of liquid measure of the contents shall be expressed in terms of the U.S. gallon of 231 cubic inches and quart, pint, and fluid-ounce subdivisions thereof, and shall express the volume at 68 °F (20 °C). See also paragraph (p) of this section.

(c) The declaration may contain common or decimal fractions. A common fraction shall be in terms of halves, quarters, eighths, sixteenths, or thirty-seconds; except that if there exists a firmly established, general consumer usage and trade custom of employing different common fractions in the net quantity declaration of a particular commodity, they may be employed. A common fraction shall be reduced to its lowest terms; a decimal fraction shall not be carried out to more than two places. A statement that includes small fractions of an ounce shall be deemed to permit smaller variations than one which does not include such fractions.

(d) The declaration shall be located on the principal display panel of the label, and with respect to packages bearing alternate principal panels it shall be duplicated on each principal display panel.

(e) The declaration shall appear as a distinct item on the principal display panel, shall be separated, by at least a space equal to the height of the lettering used in the declaration, from other printed label information appearing above or below the declaration and, by at least a space equal to twice the width of the letter “N” of the style of type used in the quantity of contents statement, from other printed label information appearing to the left or right of the declaration. It shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count, such as “giant pint” and “full quart”, that tends to exaggerate. It shall be placed on the principal display panel within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel in lines generally parallel to the base on which the package rests as it is designed to be displayed: Provided, That:

(1) On packages having a principal display panel of 5 square inches or less the requirement for placement within the bottom 30 percent of the area of the label panel shall not apply when the declaration of net quantity of contents meets the other requirements of this part; and

(2) In the case of a device that is marketed with both outer and inner retail containers bearing the mandatory label information required by this part and the inner container is not intended to be sold separately, the net quantity of contents placement requirement of this section applicable to such inner container is waived.

(3) The principal display panel of a device marketed on a display card to which the immediate container is affixed may be considered to be the display panel of the card, and the type size of the net quantity of contents statement is governed by the dimensions of the display card.

(f) The declaration shall accurately reveal the quantity of device in the package exclusive of wrappers and other material packed therewith.

(g) The declaration shall appear in conspicuous and easily legible boldface print or type in distinct contrast (by typography, layout, color, embossing, or molding) to other matter on the package; except that a declaration of net quantity blown, embossed, or molded on a glass or plastic surface is permissible when all label information is so formed on the surface. Requirements of conspicuousness and legibility shall include the specifications that:

(1) The ratio of height to width of the letter shall not exceed a differential of 3 units to 1 unit, i.e., no more than 3 times as high as it is wide.

(2) Letter heights pertain to upper case or capital letters. When upper and lower case or all lower case letters are used, it is the lower case letter “o” or its equivalent that shall meet the minimum standards.

(3) When fractions are used, each component numeral shall meet one-half the minimum height standards.

(h) The declaration shall be in letters and numerals in a type size established in relationship to the area of the principal display panel of the package and shall be uniform for all packages of substantially the same size by complying with the following type specifications:

(1) Not less than one-sixteenth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of 5 square inches or less.

(2) Not less than one-eighth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 5 but not more than 25 square inches.

(3) Not less than three-sixteenths inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 25 but not more than 100 square inches.

(4) Not less than one-fourth inch in height on packages the principal display panel of which has an area of more than 100 square inches, except not less than one-half inch in height if the area is more than 400 square inches.

(i) On packages containing less than 4 pounds or 1 gallon and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure:

(1) The declaration shall be expressed both in ounces, with identification by weight or by liquid measure and, if applicable (1 pound or 1 pint or more) followed in parentheses by a declaration in pounds for weight units, with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound (see examples set forth in paragraphs (k) (1) and (2) of this section), or in the case of liquid measure, in the largest whole units (quarts, quarts and pints, or pints, as appropriate) with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart (see examples set forth in paragraphs (k) (3) and (4) of this section). If the net weight of the package is less than 1 ounce avoirdupois or the net fluid measure is less than 1 fluid ounce, the declaration shall be in terms of common or decimal fractions of the respective ounce and not in terms of drams.

(2) The declaration may appear in more than one line. The term “net weight” shall be used when stating the net quantity of contents in terms of weight. Use of the terms “net” or “net contents” in terms of fluid measure or numerical count is optional. It is sufficient to distinguish avoirdupois ounce from fluid ounce through association of terms; for example, “Net wt. 6 oz” or “6 oz net wt.,” and “6 fl oz” or “net contents 6 fl oz.”

(j) On packages containing 4 pounds or 1 gallon or more and labeled in terms of weight or fluid measure, the declaration shall be expressed in pounds for weight units with any remainder in terms of ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pound; in the case of fluid measure, it shall be expressed in the largest whole unit, i.e., gallons, followed by common or decimal fractions of a gallon or by the next smaller whole unit or units (quarts or quarts and pints), with any remainder in terms of fluid ounces or common or decimal fractions of the pint or quart; see paragraph (k)(5) of this section.

(k) Examples: (1) A declaration of 1 1/2 pounds weight shall be expressed as “net wt. 24 oz (1 lb 8 oz),” or “Net wt. 24 oz (1 1/2 lb)” or “Net wt. 24 oz (1.5 lb).”

(2) A declaration of three-fourths pound avoirdupois weight shall be expressed as “Net wt. 12 oz.”.

(3) A declaration of 1 quart liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 32 fl oz (1 qt)” or “32 fl oz (1 qt).”

(4) A declaration of 1 3/4 quarts liquid measure shall be expressed as, “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 1 pt 8 oz)” or “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 1.5 pt),” but not in terms of quart and ounce such as “Net contents 56 fl oz (1 qt 24 oz).”

(5) A declaration of 2 1/2 gallons liquid measure shall be expressed as “Net contents 2 gal 2 qt”, “Net contents 2.5 gallons,” or “Net contents 2 1/2 gal” but not as “2 gal 4 pt”.

(l) For quantities, the following abbreviations and none other may be employed. Periods and plural forms are optional:

(m) On packages labeled in terms of linear measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of inches and, if applicable (1 foot or more), the largest whole units (yards, yards and feet, feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of inches and any remainder shall be in terms of inches or common or decimal fractions of the foot or yard; if applicable, as in the case of adhesive tape, the initial declaration in linear inches shall be preceded by a statement of the width. Examples of linear measure are “86 inches (2 yd 1 ft 2 in)”, “90 inches (2 1/2 yd)”, “30 inches (2.5 ft)”, “ 3/4 inch by 36 in (1 yd)”, etc.

(n) On packages labeled in terms of area measure, the declaration shall be expressed both in terms of square inches and, if applicable (1 square foot or more), the largest whole square unit (square yards, square yards and square feet, square feet). The declaration in terms of the largest whole units shall be in parentheses following the declaration in terms of square inches and any remainder shall be in terms of square inches or common or decimal fractions of the square foot or square yard; for example, “158 sq inches (1 sq ft 14 sq in)”.

(o) Nothing in this section shall prohibit supplemental statements at locations other than the principal display panel(s) describing in nondeceptive terms the net quantity of contents, provided that such supplemental statements of net quantity of contents shall not include any term qualifying a unit of weight, measure, or count that tends to exaggerate the amount of the device contained in the package; for example, “giant pint” and “full quart”. Dual or combination declarations of net quantity of contents as provided for in paragraphs (a) and (i) of this section are not regarded as supplemental net quantity statements and shall be located on the principal display panel.

(p) A separate statement of net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure is not regarded as a supplemental statement and an accurate statement of the net quantity of contents in terms of the metric system of weight or measure may also appear on the principal display panel or on other panels.

(q) The declaration of net quantity of contents shall express an accurate statement of the quantity of contents of the package. Reasonable variations caused by loss or gain of moisture during the course of good distribution practice or by unavoidable deviations in good manufacturing practice will be recognized. Variations from stated quantity of contents shall not be unreasonably large.

(a) All over-the-counter devices containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons, halons, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloride, or any other class I substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) shall carry one of the following warnings:

(1) The EPA warning statement:

(2) The alternative statement:

(b) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase. This provision does not replace or relieve a person from any requirements imposed under 40 CFR part 82.

A device which, because of any potentiality for harmful effect, or the method of its use, or the collateral measures necessary to its use is not safe except under the supervision of a practitioner licensed by law to direct the use of such device, and hence for which “adequate directions for use” cannot be prepared, shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if all the following conditions are met:

(a) The device is:

(1)(i) In the possession of a person, or his agents or employees, regularly and lawfully engaged in the manufacture, transportation, storage, or wholesale or retail distribution of such device; or

(ii) In the possession of a practitioner, such as physicians, dentists, and veterinarians, licensed by law to use or order the use of such device; and

(2) Is to be sold only to or on the prescription or other order of such practitioner for use in the course of his professional practice.

(b) The label of the device, other than surgical instruments, bears:

(1) The symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” or the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ___”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician”, “dentist”, “veterinarian”, or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which the practitioner practices to use or order the use of the device; and

(2) The method of its application or use.

(c) Labeling on or within the package from which the device is to be dispensed bears information for use, including indications, effects, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration, and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions under which practitioners licensed by law to administer the device can use the device safely and for the purpose for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented: Provided, however, That such information may be omitted from the dispensing package if, but only if, the article is a device for which directions, hazards, warnings, and other information are commonly known to practitioners licensed by law to use the device. Upon written request, stating reasonable grounds therefor, the Commissioner will offer an opinion on a proposal to omit such information from the dispensing package under this proviso.

(d) Any labeling, as defined in section 201(m) of the act, whether or not it is on or within a package from which the device is to be dispensed, distributed by or on behalf of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor of the device, that furnishes or purports to furnish information for use of the device contains adequate information for such use, including indications, effects, routes, methods, and frequency and duration of administration and any relevant hazards, contraindications, side effects, and precautions, under which practitioners licensed by law to employ the device can use the device safely and for the purposes for which it is intended, including all purposes for which it is advertised or represented. This information will not be required on so-called reminder - piece labeling which calls attention to the name of the device but does not include indications or other use information.

(e) All labeling, except labels and cartons, bearing information for use of the device also bears the date of the issuance or the date of the latest revision of such labeling.

A device subject to § 801.109 shall be exempt at the time of delivery to the ultimate purchaser or user from section 502(f)(1) of the act if it is delivered by a licensed practitioner in the course of his professional practice or upon a prescription or other order lawfully issued in the course of his professional practice, with labeling bearing the name and address of such licensed practitioner and the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in such order.

A device shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act insofar as adequate directions for common uses thereof are known to the ordinary individual.

A product intended for use in the diagnosis of disease and which is an in vitro diagnostic product as defined in § 809.3(a) of this chapter shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this part and section 502(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act if it meets the requirements of subpart B of this part and the requirements of § 809.10 of this chapter.

A device intended for processing, repacking, or use in the manufacture of another drug or device shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of the act if its label bears the statement “Caution: For manufacturing, processing, or repacking”.

A device subject to § 801.109 shall be exempt from section 502(f)(1) of this act if shipped or sold to, or in the possession of, persons regularly and lawfully engaged in instruction in pharmacy, chemistry, or medicine not involving clinical use, or engaged in law enforcement, or in research not involving clinical use, or in chemical analysis, or physical testing, and is to be used only for such instruction, law enforcement, research, analysis, or testing.

(a) If a shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, of a device which is exempt under the regulations in this section is made to a person in whose possession the article is not exempt, or is made for any purpose other than those specified, such exemption shall expire, with respect to such shipment or delivery or part thereof, at the beginning of that shipment or delivery. The causing of an exemption to expire shall be considered an act which results in such device being misbranded unless it is disposed of under circumstances in which it ceases to be a drug or device.

(b) The exemptions conferred by §§ 801.119, 801.122, and 801.125 shall continue until the devices are used for the purposes for which they are exempted, or until they are relabeled to comply with section 502(f)(1) of the act. If, however, the device is converted, or manufactured into a form limited to prescription dispensing, no exemption shall thereafter apply to the article unless the device is labeled as required by § 801.109.

(a) The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to any provision listed in paragraph (f) of this section and not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a medical device, if the Center Director determines that compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such devices that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.

(b)(1)(i) A Strategic National Stockpile official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores devices that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile may submit, with written concurrence from a Strategic National Stockpile official, a written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Center Director.

(ii) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section on his or her own initiative.

(2) A written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section must:

(i) Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of the medical device that would be subject to the exception or alternative;

(ii) Identify the labeling provision(s) listed in paragraph (f) of this section that are the subject of the exception or alternative request;

(iii) Explain why compliance with the labeling provision(s) could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the specified lots, batches, or other units of a medical device that are or will be held in the Strategic National Stockpile;

(iv) Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the device includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the device, given the anticipated circumstances of use of the device;

(v) Provide a draft of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the medical device subject to the exception or alternative; and

(vi) Provide any other information requested by the Center Director in support of the request.

(c) The Center Director must respond in writing to all requests under this section. The Center Director may impose appropriate conditions when granting such an exception or alternative under this section.

(d) A grant of an exception or alternative under this section will include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate by the Center Director so that the labeling of devices subject to the exception or alternative includes the information necessary for the safe and effective use of the device, given the anticipated circumstances of use.

(e) If the Center Director grants a request for an exception or alternative to the labeling requirements under this section:

(1) The Center Director may determine that the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to premarket notification submissions under § 807.81(a)(3) of this chapter.

(2)(i) For a Premarket Approval Application (PMA)-approved device, the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to submission of PMA supplements under § 814.39 of this chapter; however,

(ii) The grant of the request must be identified in a periodic report under § 814.84 of this chapter.

(f) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative under this section to the following provisions of this chapter, to the extent that the requirements in these provisions are not explicitly required by statute:

(1) § 801.1(d);

(2) Subpart B of this part and part 830 of this chapter in its entirety;

(3) § 801.60;

(4) § 801.61;

(5) § 801.62;

(6) § 801.63;

(7) § 801.109; and

(8) Part 801, subpart H.

(a) Except as provided by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a shipment or other delivery of a device which is, in accordance with the practice of the trade, to be processed, labeled, or repacked, in substantial quantity at an establishment other than that where originally processed or packed, shall be exempt, during the time of introduction into and movement in interstate commerce and the time of holding in such establishment, from compliance with the labeling and packaging requirements of section 502(b) and (f) of the act if:

(1) The person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce is the operator of the establishment where such device is to be processed, labeled, or repacked; or

(2) In case such person is not such operator, such shipment or delivery is made to such establishment under a written agreement, signed by and containing the post office addresses of such person and such operator, and containing such specifications for the processing, labeling, or repacking, as the case may be, of such device in such establishment as will insure, if such specifications are followed, that such device will not be adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act upon completion of such processing, labeling, or repacking. Such person and such operator shall each keep a copy of such agreement until 2 years after the final shipment or delivery of such device from such establishment, and shall make such copies available for inspection at any reasonable hour to any officer or employee of the Department who requests them.

(b) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a device under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, at the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment, become void ab initio if the device comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed.

(c) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a device under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall become void ab initio with respect to the person who introduced such shipment or delivery into interstate commerce upon refusal by such person to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such paragraph (a)(2).

(d) An exemption of a shipment or other delivery of a device under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall expire:

(1) At the beginning of the act of removing such shipment or delivery, or any part thereof, from such establishment if the device comprising such shipment, delivery, or part is adulterated or misbranded within the meaning of the act when so removed; or

(2) Upon refusal by the operator of the establishment where such device is to be processed, labeled, or repacked, to make available for inspection a copy of the agreement, as required by such clause.

(e) As it is a common industry practice to manufacture and/or assemble, package, and fully label a device as sterile at one establishment and then ship such device in interstate commerce to another establishment or to a contract sterilizer for sterilization, the Food and Drug Administration will initiate no regulatory action against the device as misbranded or adulterated when the nonsterile device is labeled sterile, provided all the following conditions are met:

(1) There is in effect a written agreement which:

(i) Contains the names and post office addresses of the firms involved and is signed by the person authorizing such shipment and the operator or person in charge of the establishment receiving the devices for sterilization.

(ii) Provides instructions for maintaining proper records or otherwise accounting for the number of units in each shipment to insure that the number of units shipped is the same as the number received and sterilized.

(iii) Acknowledges that the device is nonsterile and is being shipped for further processing, and

(iv) States in detail the sterilization process, the gaseous mixture or other media, the equipment, and the testing method or quality controls to be used by the contract sterilizer to assure that the device will be brought into full compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(2) Each pallet, carton, or other designated unit is conspicuously marked to show its nonsterile nature when it is introduced into and is moving in interstate commerce, and while it is being held prior to sterilization. Following sterilization, and until such time as it is established that the device is sterile and can be released from quarantine, each pallet, carton, or other designated unit is conspicuously marked to show that it has not been released from quarantine, e.g., “sterilized - awaiting test results” or an equivalent designation.

(a) The American Dental Association and leading dental authorities have advised the Food and Drug Administration of their concern regarding the safety of denture reliners, repair kits, pads, cushions, and other articles marketed and labeled for lay use in the repairing, refitting, or cushioning of ill-fitting, broken, or irritating dentures. It is the opinion of dental authorities and the Food and Drug Administration that to properly repair and properly refit dentures a person must have professional knowledge and specialized technical skill. Laymen cannot be expected to maintain the original vertical dimension of occlusion and the centric relation essential in the proper repairing or refitting of dentures. The continued wearing of improperly repaired or refitted dentures may cause acceleration of bone resorption, soft tissue hyperplasia, and other irreparable damage to the oral cavity. Such articles designed for lay use should be limited to emergency or temporary situations pending the services of a licensed dentist.

(b) The Food and Drug Administration therefore regards such articles as unsafe and misbranded under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, unless the labeling:

(1)(i) Limits directions for use for denture repair kits to emergency repairing pending unavoidable delay in obtaining professional reconstruction of the denture;

(ii) Limits directions for use for denture reliners, pads, and cushions to temporary refitting pending unavoidable delay in obtaining professional reconstruction of the denture;

(2) Contains in a conspicuous manner the word “emergency” preceding and modifying each indication-for-use statement for denture repair kits and the word “temporary” preceding and modifying each indication-for-use statement for reliners, pads, and cushions; and

(3) Includes a conspicuous warning statement to the effect:

(i) For denture repair kits: “Warning - For emergency repairs only. Long term use of home-repaired dentures may cause faster bone loss, continuing irritation, sores, and tumors. This kit for emergency use only. See Dentist Without Delay.”

(ii) For denture reliners, pads, and cushions: “Warning - For temporary use only. Longterm use of this product may lead to faster bone loss, continuing irritation, sores, and tumors. For Use Only Until a Dentist Can Be Seen.”

(c) Adequate directions for use require full information of the temporary and emergency use recommended in order for the layman to understand the limitations of usefulness, the reasons therefor, and the importance of adhering to the warnings. Accordingly, the labeling should contain substantially the following information:

(1) For denture repair kits: Special training and tools are needed to repair dentures to fit properly. Home-repaired dentures may cause irritation to the gums and discomfort and tiredness while eating. Long term use may lead to more troubles, even permanent changes in bones, teeth, and gums, which may make it impossible to wear dentures in the future. For these reasons, dentures repaired with this kit should be used only in an emergency until a dentist can be seen. Dentures that don't fit properly cause irritation and injury to the gums and faster bone loss, which is permanent. Dentures that don't fit properly cause gum changes that may require surgery for correction. Continuing irritation and injury may lead to cancer in the mouth. You must see your dentist as soon as possible.

(2) For denture reliners, pads, and cushions: Use of these preparations or devices may temporarily decrease the discomfort; however, their use will not make the denture fit properly. Special training and tools are needed to repair a denture to fit properly. Dentures that do not fit properly cause irritation and injury to the gums and faster bone loss, which is permanent and may require a completely new denture. Changes in the gums caused by dentures that do not fit properly may require surgery for correction. Continuing irritation and injury may lead to cancer in the mouth. You must see your dentist as soon as possible.

(3) If the denture relining or repairing material forms a permanent bond with the denture, a warning statement to the following effect should be included: “This reliner becomes fixed to the denture and a completely new denture may be required because of its use.”

(d) Labeling claims exaggerating the usefulness or the safety of the material or failing to disclose all facts relevant to the claims of usefulness will be regarded as false and misleading under sections 201(n) and 502(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(e) Regulatory action may be initiated with respect to any article found within the jurisdiction of the act contrary to the provisions of this policy statement after 90 days following the date of publication of this section in the Federal Register.

(a) Examination of data available on the frequency of eye injuries resulting from the shattering of ordinary crown glass lenses indicates that the use of such lenses constitutes an avoidable hazard to the eye of the wearer.

(b) The consensus of the ophthalmic community is that the number of eye injuries would be substantially reduced by the use in eyeglasses and sunglasses of impact-resistant lenses.

(c)(1) To protect the public more adequately from potential eye injury, eyeglasses and sunglasses must be fitted with impact-resistant lenses, except in those cases where the physician or optometrist finds that such lenses will not fulfill the visual requirements of the particular patient, directs in writing the use of other lenses, and gives written notification thereof to the patient.

(2) The physician or optometrist shall have the option of ordering glass lenses, plastic lenses, or laminated glass lenses made impact resistant by any method; however, all such lenses shall be capable of withstanding the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(3) Each finished impact-resistant glass lens for prescription use shall be individually tested for impact resistance and shall be capable of withstanding the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Raised multifocal lenses shall be impact resistant but need not be tested beyond initial design testing. Prism segment multifocal, slab-off prism, lenticular cataract, iseikonic, depressed segment one-piece multifocal, bioconcave, myodisc and minus lenticular, custom laminate and cemented assembly lenses shall be impact resistant but need not be subjected to impact testing. To demonstrate that all other types of impact-resistant lenses, including impact-resistant laminated glass lenses (i.e., lenses other than those described in the three preceding sentences of this paragraph (c)(3)), are capable of withstanding the impact test described in this regulation, the manufacturer of these lenses shall subject to an impact test a statistically significant sampling of lenses from each production batch, and the lenses so tested shall be representative of the finished forms as worn by the wearer, including finished forms that are of minimal lens thickness and have been subjected to any treatment used to impart impact resistance. All nonprescription lenses and plastic prescription lenses tested on the basis of statistical significance shall be tested in uncut-finished or finished form.

(d)(1) For the purpose of this regulation, the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be the “referee test,” defined as “one which will be utilized to determine compliance with a regulation.” The referee test provides the Food and Drug Administration with the means of examining a medical device for performance and does not inhibit the manufacturer from using equal or superior test methods. A lens manufacturer shall conduct tests of lenses using the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section or any equal or superior test. Whatever test is used, the lenses shall be capable of withstanding the impact test described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the Food and Drug Administration examines them for performance.

(2) In the impact test, a 5/8-inch steel ball weighing approximately 0.56 ounce is dropped from a height of 50 inches upon the horizontal upper surface of the lens. The ball shall strike within a 5/8-inch diameter circle located at the geometric center of the lens. The ball may be guided but not restricted in its fall by being dropped through a tube extending to within approximately 4 inches of the lens. To pass the test, the lens must not fracture; for the purpose of this section, a lens will be considered to have fractured if it cracks through its entire thickness, including a laminar layer, if any, and across a complete diameter into two or more separate pieces, or if any lens material visible to the naked eyes becomes detached from the ocular surface. The test shall be conducted with the lens supported by a tube (1-inch inside diameter, 1 1/4-inch outside diameter, and approximately 1-inch high) affixed to a rigid iron or steel base plate. The total weight of the base plate and its rigidly attached fixtures shall be not less than 27 pounds. For lenses of small minimum diameter, a support tube having an outside diameter of less than 1 1/4 inches may be used. The support tube shall be made of rigid acrylic plastic, steel, or other suitable substance and shall have securely bonded on the top edge a 1/8- by 1/8-inch neoprene gasket having a hardness of 40 ±5, as determined by ASTM Method D 1415-88, “Standard Test Method for Rubber Property - International Hardness” a minimum tensile strength of 1,200 pounds, as determined by ASTM Method D 412-98A, “Standard Test Methods for Vulcanized Rubber and Thermoplastic Elastomers - Tension,” and a minimum ultimate elongation of 400 percent, as determined by ASTM Method D 412-68 (Both methods are incorporated by reference and are available from the American Society for Testing Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Dr., West Conshohocken, Philadelphia, PA 19428, or available for inspection at the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's Library, 9200 Corporate Blvd., Rockville, MD 20850, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. The diameter or contour of the lens support may be modified as necessary so that the 1/8- by 1/8-inch neoprene gasket supports the lens at its periphery.

(e) Copies of invoice(s), shipping document(s), and records of sale or distribution of all impact resistant lenses, including finished eyeglasses and sunglasses, shall be kept and maintained for a period of 3 years; however, the names and addresses of individuals purchasing nonprescription eyeglasses and sunglasses at the retail level need not be kept and maintained by the retailer. The records kept in compliance with this paragraph shall be made available upon request at all reasonable hours by any officer or employee of the Food and Drug Administration or by any other officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services and such officer or employee shall be permitted to inspect and copy such records, to make such inventories of stock as he deems necessary, and otherwise to check the correctness of such inventories.

(f) In addition, those persons conducting tests in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section shall maintain the results thereof and a description of the test method and of the test apparatus for a period of 3 years. These records shall be made available upon request at any reasonable hour by any officer or employee acting on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services. The persons conducting tests shall permit the officer or employee to inspect and copy the records, to make such inventories of stock as the officer or employee deems necessary, and otherwise to check the correctness of the inventories.

(g) For the purpose of this section, the term “manufacturer” includes an importer for resale. Such importer may have the tests required by paragraph (d) of this section conducted in the country of origin but must make the results thereof available, upon request, to the Food and Drug Administration, as soon as practicable.

(h) All lenses must be impact-resistant except when the physician or optometrist finds that impact-resistant lenses will not fulfill the visual requirements for a particular patient.

(i) This statement of policy does not apply to contact lenses.

(a) Ozone is a toxic gas with no known useful medical application in specific, adjunctive, or preventive therapy. In order for ozone to be effective as a germicide, it must be present in a concentration far greater than that which can be safely tolerated by man and animals.

(b) Although undesirable physiological effects on the central nervous system, heart, and vision have been reported, the predominant physiological effect of ozone is primary irritation of the mucous membranes. Inhalation of ozone can cause sufficient irritation to the lungs to result in pulmonary edema. The onset of pulmonary edema is usually delayed for some hours after exposure; thus, symptomatic response is not a reliable warning of exposure to toxic concentrations of ozone. Since olfactory fatigue develops readily, the odor of ozone is not a reliable index of atmospheric ozone concentration.

(c) A number of devices currently on the market generate ozone by design or as a byproduct. Since exposure to ozone above a certain concentration can be injurious to health, any such device will be considered adulterated and/or misbranded within the meaning of sections 501 and 502 of the act if it is used or intended for use under the following conditions:

(1) In such a manner that it generates ozone at a level in excess of 0.05 part per million by volume of air circulating through the device or causes an accumulation of ozone in excess of 0.05 part per million by volume of air (when measured under standard conditions at 25 °C (77 °F) and 760 millimeters of mercury) in the atmosphere of enclosed space intended to be occupied by people for extended periods of time, e.g., houses, apartments, hospitals, and offices. This applies to any such device, whether portable or permanent or part of any system, which generates ozone by design or as an inadvertent or incidental product.

(2) To generate ozone and release it into the atmosphere in hospitals or other establishments occupied by the ill or infirm.

(3) To generate ozone and release it into the atmosphere and does not indicate in its labeling the maximum acceptable concentration of ozone which may be generated (not to exceed 0.05 part per million by volume of air circulating through the device) as established herein and the smallest area in which such device can be used so as not to produce an ozone accumulation in excess of 0.05 part per million.

(4) In any medical condition for which there is no proof of safety and effectiveness.

(5) To generate ozone at a level less than 0.05 part per million by volume of air circulating through the device and it is labeled for use as a germicide or deodorizer.

(d) This section does not affect the present threshold limit value of 0.10 part per million (0.2 milligram per cubic meter) of ozone exposure for an 8-hour-day exposure of industrial workers as recommended by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists.

(e) The method and apparatus specified in 40 CFR part 50, or any other equally sensitive and accurate method, may be employed in measuring ozone pursuant to this section.

The use of chlorofluorocarbon in devices as propellants in self-pressurized containers is generally prohibited except as provided in § 2.125 of this chapter.

(a) Definitions for the purposes of this section and § 801.421. (1) Hearing aid means any wearable instrument or device designed for, offered for the purpose of, or represented as aiding persons with or compensating for, impaired hearing.

(2) Ear specialist means any licensed physician who specializes in diseases of the ear and is medically trained to identify the symptoms of deafness in the context of the total health of the patient, and is qualified by special training to diagnose and treat hearing loss. Such physicians are also known as otolaryngologists, otologists, and otorhinolaryngologists.

(3) Dispenser means any person, partnership, corporation, or association engaged in the sale, lease, or rental of hearing aids to any member of the consuming public or any employee, agent, sales person, and/or representative of such a person, partnership, corporation, or association.

(4) Audiologist means any person qualified by training and experience to specialize in the evaluation and rehabilitation of individuals whose communication disorders center in whole or in part in the hearing function. In some states audiologists must satisfy specific requirements for licensure.

(5) Sale or purchase includes any lease or rental of a hearing aid to a member of the consuming public who is a user or prospective user of a hearing aid.

(6) Used hearing aid means any hearing aid that has been worn for any period of time by a user. However, a hearing aid shall not be considered “used” merely because it has been worn by a prospective user as a part of a bona fide hearing aid evaluation conducted to determine whether to select that particular hearing aid for that prospective user, if such evaluation has been conducted in the presence of the dispenser or a hearing aid health professional selected by the dispenser to assist the buyer in making such a determination.

(b) Label requirements for hearing aids. Hearing aids shall be clearly and permanently marked with:

(1) The name of the manufacturer or distributor, the model name or number, the serial number, and the year of manufacture.

(2) A “ + ” symbol to indicate the positive connection for battery insertion, unless it is physically impossible to insert the battery in the reversed position.

(c) Labeling requirements for hearing aids - (1) General. All labeling information required by this paragraph shall be included in a User Instructional Brochure that shall be developed by the manufacturer or distributor, shall accompany the hearing aid, and shall be provided to the prospective user by the dispenser of the hearing aid in accordance with § 801.421(c). The User Instructional Brochure accompanying each hearing aid shall contain the following information and instructions for use, to the extent applicable to the particular requirements and characteristics of the hearing aid:

(i) An illustration(s) of the hearing aid, indicating operating controls, user adjustments, and battery compartment.

(ii) Information on the function of all controls intended for user adjustment.

(iii) A description of any accessory that may accompany the hearing aid, e.g., accessories for use with a television or telephone.

(iv) Specific instructions for:

(a) Use of the hearing aid.

(b) Maintenance and care of the hearing aid, including the procedure to follow in washing the earmold, when replacing tubing on those hearing aids that use tubing, and in storing the hearing aid when it will not be used for an extended period of time.

(c) Replacing or recharging the batteries, including a generic designation of replacement batteries.

(v) Information on how and where to obtain repair service, including at least one specific address where the user can go, or send the hearing aid to, to obtain such repair service.

(vi) A description of commonly occurring avoidable conditions that could adversely affect or damage the hearing aid, such as dropping, immersing, or exposing the hearing aid to excessive heat.

(vii) Identification of any known side effects associated with the use of a hearing aid that may warrant consultation with a physician, e.g., skin irritation and accelerated accumulation of cerumen (ear wax).

(viii) A statement that a hearing aid will not restore normal hearing and will not prevent or improve a hearing impairment resulting from organic conditions.

(ix) A statement that in most cases infrequent use of a hearing aid does not permit a user to attain full benefit from it.

(x) A statement that the use of a hearing aid is only part of hearing habilitation and may need to be supplemented by auditory training and instruction in lipreading.

(xi) The warning statement required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(xii) The notice for prospective hearing aid users required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(xiii) The technical data required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section, unless such data is provided in separate labeling accompanying the device.

(2) Warning statement. The User Instructional Brochure shall contain the following warning statement:

(3) Notice for prospective hearing aid users. The User Instructional Brochure shall contain the following notice:

(4) Technical data. Technical data useful in selecting, fitting, and checking the performance of a hearing aid shall be provided in the User Instructional Brochure or in separate labeling that accompanies the device. The determination of technical data values for the hearing aid labeling shall be conducted in accordance with the test procedures of the American National Standard “Specification of Hearing Aid Characteristics,” ANSI S3.22-2003 (Revision of ANSI S3.22-1996) (Includes April 2007 Erratum). The Director of the Office of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies are available from the Standards Secretariat of the Acoustical Society of America, 120 Wall St., New York, NY 10005-3993, or are available for inspection at the Regulations Staff, CDRH (HFZ-215), FDA, 1350 Piccard Dr., rm. 150, Rockville, MD 20850, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. As a minimum, the User Instructional Brochure or such other labeling shall include the appropriate values or information for the following technical data elements as these elements are defined or used in such standard:

(i) Saturation output curve (SSPL 90 curve).

(ii) Frequency response curve.

(iii) Average saturation output (HF-Average SSPL 90).

(iv) Average full-on gain (HF-Average full-on gain).

(v) Reference test gain.

(vi) Frequency range.

(vii) Total harmonic distortion.

(viii) Equivalent input noise.

(ix) Battery current drain.

(x) Induction coil sensitivity (telephone coil aids only).

(xi) Input-output curve (ACG aids only).

(xii) Attack and release times (ACG aids only).

(5) Statement if hearing aid is used or rebuilt. If a hearing aid has been used or rebuilt, this fact shall be declared on the container in which the hearing aid is packaged and on a tag that is physically attached to such hearing aid. Such fact may also be stated in the User Instructional Brochure.

(6) Statements in User Instructional Brochure other than those required. A User Instructional Brochure may contain statements or illustrations in addition to those required by paragraph (c) of this section if the additional statements:

(i) Are not false or misleading in any particular, e.g., diminishing the impact of the required statements; and

(ii) Are not prohibited by this chapter or by regulations of the Federal Trade Commission.

(a) Medical evaluation requirements - (1) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a hearing aid dispenser shall not sell a hearing aid unless the prospective user has presented to the hearing aid dispenser a written statement signed by a licensed physician that states that the patient's hearing loss has been medically evaluated and the patient may be considered a candidate for a hearing aid. The medical evaluation must have taken place within the preceding 6 months.

(2) Waiver to the medical evaluation requirements. If the prospective hearing aid user is 18 years of age or older, the hearing aid dispenser may afford the prospective user an opportunity to waive the medical evaluation requirement of paragraph (a)(1) of this section provided that the hearing aid dispenser:

(i) Informs the prospective user that the exercise of the waiver is not in the user's best health interest;

(ii) Does not in any way actively encourage the prospective user to waive such a medical evaluation; and

(iii) Affords the prospective user the opportunity to sign the following statement:

(b) Opportunity to review User Instructional Brochure. Before signing any statement under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section and before the sale of a hearing aid to a prospective user, the hearing aid dispenser shall:

(1) Provide the prospective user a copy of the User Instructional Brochure for a hearing aid that has been, or may be selected for the prospective user;

(2) Review the content of the User Instructional Brochure with the prospective user orally, or in the predominate method of communication used during the sale;

(3) Afford the prospective user an opportunity to read the User Instructional Brochure.

(c) Availability of User Instructional Brochure. (1) Upon request by an individual who is considering purchase of a hearing aid, a dispenser shall, with respect to any hearing aid that he dispenses, provide a copy of the User Instructional Brochure for the hearing aid or the name and address of the manufacturer or distributor from whom a User Instructional Brochure for the hearing aid may be obtained.

(2) In addition to assuring that a User Instructional Brochure accompanies each hearing aid, a manufacturer or distributor shall with respect to any hearing aid that he manufactures or distributes:

(i) Provide sufficient copies of the User Instructional Brochure to sellers for distribution to users and prospective users;

(ii) Provide a copy of the User Instructional Brochure to any hearing aid professional, user, or prospective user who requests a copy in writing.

(d) Recordkeeping. The dispenser shall retain for 3 years after the dispensing of a hearing aid a copy of any written statement from a physician required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section or any written statement waiving medical evaluation required under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.

(e) Exemption for group auditory trainers. Group auditory trainers, defined as a group amplification system purchased by a qualified school or institution for the purpose of communicating with and educating individuals with hearing impairments, are exempt from the requirements of this section.

(a) This section applies to scented or scented deodorized menstrual tampons as identified in § 884.5460 and unscented menstrual tampons as identified in § 884.5470 of this chapter.

(b) Data show that toxic shock syndrome (TSS), a rare but serious and sometimes fatal disease, is associated with the use of menstrual tampons. To protect the public and to minimize the serious adverse effects of TSS, menstrual tampons shall be labeled as set forth in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and tested for absorbency as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.

(c) If the information specified in paragraph (d) of this section is to be included as a package insert, the following alert statement shall appear prominently and legibly on the package label:

(d) The labeling of menstrual tampons shall contain the following consumer information prominently and legibly, in such terms as to render the information likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use:

(1)(i) Warning signs of TSS, e.g., sudden fever (usually 102° or more) and vomiting, diarrhea, fainting or near fainting when standing up, dizziness, or a rash that looks like a sunburn;

(ii) What to do if these or other signs of TSS appear, including the need to remove the tampon at once and seek medical attention immediately;

(2) The risk of TSS to all women using tampons during their menstrual period, especially the reported higher risks to women under 30 years of age and teenage girls, the estimated incidence of TSS of 1 to 17 per 100,000 menstruating women and girls per year, and the risk of death from contracting TSS;

(3) The advisability of using tampons with the minimum absorbency needed to control menstrual flow in order to reduce the risk of contracting TSS;

(4) Avoiding the risk of getting tampon-associated TSS by not using tampons, and reducing the risk of getting TSS by alternating tampon use with sanitary napkin use during menstrual periods; and

(5) The need to seek medical attention before again using tampons if TSS warning signs have occurred in the past, or if women have any questions about TSS or tampon use.

(e) The statements required by paragraph (e) of this section shall be prominently and legibly placed on the package label of menstrual tampons in conformance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (unless the menstrual tampons are exempt under paragraph (g) of this section).

(1) Menstrual tampon package labels shall bear one of the following absorbency terms representing the absorbency of the production run, lot, or batch as measured by the test described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section;

(2) The package label shall include an explanation of the ranges of absorbency and a description of how consumers can use a range of absorbency, and its corresponding absorbency term, to make comparisons of absorbency of tampons to allow selection of the tampons with the minimum absorbency needed to control menstrual flow in order to reduce the risk of contracting TSS.

(f) A manufacturer shall measure the absorbency of individual tampons using the test method specified in paragraph (f)(2) of this section and calculate the mean absorbency of a production run, lot, or batch by rounding to the nearest 0.1 gram.

(1) A manufacturer shall design and implement a sampling plan that includes collection of probability samples of adequate size to yield consistent tolerance intervals such that the probability is 90 percent that at least 90 percent of the absorbencies of individual tampons within a brand and type are within the range of absorbency stated on the package label.

(2) In the absorbency test, an unlubricated condom, with tensile strength between 17 Mega Pascals (MPa) and 30 MPa, as measured according to the procedure in the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D 3492-97, “Standard Specification for Rubber Contraceptives (Male Condoms)” 1 for determining tensile strength, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a), is attached to the large end of a glass chamber (or a chamber made from hard transparent plastic) with a rubber band (see figure 1) and pushed through the small end of the chamber using a smooth, finished rod. The condom is pulled through until all slack is removed. The tip of the condom is cut off and the remaining end of the condom is stretched over the end of the tube and secured with a rubber band. A preweighed (to the nearest 0.01 gram) tampon is placed within the condom membrane so that the center of gravity of the tampon is at the center of the chamber. An infusion needle (14 gauge) is inserted through the septum created by the condom tip until it contacts the end of the tampon. The outer chamber is filled with water pumped from a temperature-controlled waterbath to maintain the average temperature at 27±1 °C. The water returns to the waterbath as shown in figure 2. Syngyna fluid (10 grams sodium chloride, 0.5 gram Certified Reagent Acid Fushsin, 1,000 milliliters distilled water) is then pumped through the infusion needle at a rate of 50 milliliters per hour. The test shall be terminated when the tampon is saturated and the first drop of fluid exits the apparatus. (The test result shall be discarded if fluid is detected in the folds of the condom before the tampon is saturated). The water is then drained and the tampon is removed and immediately weighed to the nearest 0.01 gram. The absorbency of the tampon is determined by subtracting its dry weight from this value. The condom shall be replaced after 10 tests or at the end of the day during which the condom is used in testing, whichever occurs first.

(3) The Food and Drug Administration may permit the use of an absorbency test method different from the test method specified in this section if each of the following conditions is met:

(i) The manufacturer presents evidence, in the form of a citizen petition submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 10.30 of this chapter, demonstrating that the alternative test method will yield results that are equivalent to the results yielded by the test method specified in this section; and

(ii) FDA approves the method and has published notice of its approval of the alternative test method in the Federal Register.

(g) Any menstrual tampon intended to be dispensed by a vending machine is exempt from the requirements of this section.

(h) Any menstrual tampon that is not labeled as required by paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into commerce after March 1, 1990, is misbranded under sections 201(n), 502 (a) and (f) of the act.

(a)(1) All prescription and restricted device products containing or manufactured with chlorofluorocarbons, halons, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloride, or any other class I substance designated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) shall, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, bear the following warning statement:

(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase.

(b)(1) For prescription and restricted device products, the following alternative warning statement may be used:

(2) The warning statement shall be clearly legible and conspicuous on the product, its immediate container, its outer packaging, or other labeling in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 82 and appear with such prominence and conspicuousness as to render it likely to be read and understood by consumers under normal conditions of purchase.

(3) If the warning statement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is used, the following warning statement must be placed on the package labeling intended to be read by the physician (physician package insert) after the “How supplied” section, which describes special handling and storage conditions on the physician labeling:

(c) This section does not replace or relieve a person from any requirements imposed under 40 CFR part 82.

(a) This section applies to the subset of condoms as identified in § 884.5300 of this chapter, and condoms with spermicidal lubricant as identified in § 884.5310 of this chapter, which products are formed from latex films.

(b) Data show that the material integrity of latex condoms degrade over time. To protect the public health and minimize the risk of device failure, latex condoms must bear an expiration date which is supported by testing as described in paragraphs (d) and (h) of this section.

(c) The expiration date, as demonstrated by testing procedures required by paragraphs (d) and (h) of this section, must be displayed prominently and legibly on the primary packaging (i.e., individual package), and higher levels of packaging (e.g., boxes of condoms), in order to ensure visibility of the expiration date by consumers.

(d) Except as provided under paragraph (f) of this section, the expiration date must be supported by data demonstrating physical and mechanical integrity of the product after three discrete and representative lots of the product have been subjected to each of the following conditions:

(1) Storage of unpackaged bulk product for the maximum amount of time the manufacturer allows the product to remain unpackaged, followed by storage of the packaged product at 70 °C (plus or minus 2 °C) for 7 days;

(2) Storage of unpackaged bulk product for the maximum amount of time the manufacturer allows the product to remain unpackaged, followed by storage of the packaged product at a selected temperature between 40 and 50 °C (plus or minus 2 °C) for 90 days; and

(3) Storage of unpackaged bulk product for the maximum amount of time the manufacturer allows the product to remain unpackaged, followed by storage of the packaged product at a monitored or controlled temperature between 15 and 30 °C for the lifetime of the product (real time storage).

(e) If a product fails the physical and mechanical integrity tests commonly used by industry after the completion of the accelerated storage tests described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, the product expiration date must be demonstrated by real time storage conditions described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. If all of the products tested after storage at temperatures as described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section pass the manufacturer's physical and mechanical integrity tests, the manufacturer may label the product with an expiration date of up to 5 years from the date of product packaging. If the extrapolated expiration date under paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section is used, the labeled expiration date must be confirmed by physical and mechanical integrity tests performed at the end of the stated expiration period as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. If the data from tests following real time storage described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section fails to confirm the extrapolated expiration date, the manufacturer must, at that time, relabel the product to reflect the actual shelf life.

(f) Products that already have established shelf life data based upon real time storage and testing and have such storage and testing data available for inspection are not required to confirm such data using accelerated and intermediate aging data described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section. If, however, such real time expiration dates were based upon testing of products that were not first left unpackaged for the maximum amount of time as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the real time testing must be confirmed by testing products consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section. This testing shall be initiated no later than the effective date of this regulation. Until the confirmation testing in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section is completed, the product may remain on the market labeled with the expiration date based upon previous real time testing.

(g) If a manufacturer uses testing data from one product to support expiration dating on any variation of that product, the manufacturer must document and provide, upon request, an appropriate justification for the application of the testing data to the variation of the tested product.

(h) If a latex condom contains a spermicide, and the expiration date based on spermicidal stability testing is different from the expiration date based upon latex integrity testing, the product shall bear only the earlier expiration date.

(i) The time period upon which the expiration date is based shall start with the date of packaging.

(j) As provided in part 820 of this chapter, all testing data must be retained in each company's files, and shall be made available upon request for inspection by the Food and Drug Administration.

(k) Any latex condom not labeled with an expiration date as required by paragraph (c) of this section, and initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the effective date of this regulation is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a) and (f) of Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321(n) and 352(a) and (f)).

(a) Data in the Medical Device Reporting System and the scientific literature indicate that some individuals are at risk of severe anaphylactic reactions to natural latex proteins. This labeling regulation is intended to minimize the risk to individuals sensitive to natural latex proteins and protect the public health.

(b) This section applies to all devices composed of or containing, or having packaging or components that are composed of, or contain, natural rubber that contacts humans. The term “natural rubber” includes natural rubber latex, dry natural rubber, and synthetic latex or synthetic rubber that contains natural rubber in its formulation.

(1) The term “natural rubber latex” means rubber that is produced by the natural rubber latex process that involves the use of natural latex in a concentrated colloidal suspension. Products are formed from natural rubber latex by dipping, extruding, or coating.

(2) The term “dry natural rubber” means rubber that is produced by the dry natural rubber process that involves the use of coagulated natural latex in the form of dried or milled sheets. Products are formed from dry natural rubber by compression molding, extrusion, or by converting the sheets into a solution for dipping.

(3) The term “contacts humans” means that the natural rubber contained in a device is intended to contact or is likely to contact the user or patient. This includes contact when the device that contains natural rubber is connected to the patient by a liquid path or an enclosed gas path; or the device containing the natural rubber is fully or partially coated with a powder, and such powder may carry natural rubber proteins that may contaminate the environment of the user or patient.

(c) Devices containing natural rubber shall be labeled as set forth in paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section. Each required labeling statement shall be prominently and legibly displayed in conformance with section 502(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) (21 U.S.C. 352(c)).

(d) Devices containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling:

“Caution: This Product Contains Natural Rubber Latex Which May Cause Allergic Reactions.”

(e) Devices containing dry natural rubber that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, that are not already subject to paragraph (d) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling:

“This Product Contains Dry Natural Rubber.”

(f) Devices that have packaging containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling:

“Caution: The Packaging of This Product Contains Natural Rubber Latex Which May Cause Allergic Reactions.”

(g) Devices that have packaging containing dry natural rubber that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall bear the following statement in bold print on the device labeling:

“The Packaging of This Product Contains Dry Natural Rubber.”

(h) Devices that contain natural rubber that contacts humans, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall not contain the term “hypoallergenic” on their labeling.

(i) Any affected person may request an exemption or variance from the requirements of this section by submitting a citizen petition in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter.

(j) Any device subject to this section that is not labeled in accordance with paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section and that is initially introduced or initially delivered for introduction into interstate commerce after the effective date of this regulation is misbranded under sections 201(n) and 502(a), (c), and (f) of the act (21 U.S.C. 321(n) and 352(a), (c), and (f)).

(a) This part establishes the requirements for medical device reporting for device user facilities, manufacturers, importers, and distributors. If you are a device user facility, you must report deaths and serious injuries that a device has or may have caused or contributed to, establish and maintain adverse event files, and submit summary annual reports. If you are a manufacturer or importer, you must report deaths and serious injuries that your device has or may have caused or contributed to, you must report certain device malfunctions, and you must establish and maintain adverse event files. If you are a manufacturer, you must also submit specified followup. These reports help us to protect the public health by helping to ensure that devices are not adulterated or misbranded and are safe and effective for their intended use. If you are a medical device distributor, you must maintain records (files) of incidents, but you are not required to report these incidents.

(b) This part supplements and does not supersede other provisions of this chapter, including the provisions of part 820 of this chapter.

(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.

Some of the terms we use in this part are specific to medical device reporting and reflect the language used in the statute (law). Other terms are more general and reflect our interpretation of the law. This section defines the following terms as used in this part:

(a) Ambulatory surgical facility (ASF) means a distinct entity that operates for the primary purpose of furnishing same day outpatient surgical services to patients. An ASF may be either an independent entity (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity). An ASF is subject to this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or regardless of whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the ASF must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the ASF.

(b) Become aware means that an employee of the entity required to report has acquired information that reasonably suggests a reportable adverse event has occurred.

(1) If you are a device user facility, you are considered to have “become aware” when medical personnel, as defined in this section, who are employed by or otherwise formally affiliated with your facility, obtain information about a reportable event.

(2) If you are a manufacturer, you are considered to have become aware of an event when any of your employees becomes aware of a reportable event that is required to be reported within 30 calendar days or that is required to be reported within 5 work days because we had requested reports in accordance with § 803.53(b). You are also considered to have become aware of an event when any of your employees with management or supervisory responsibilities over persons with regulatory, scientific, or technical responsibilities, or whose duties relate to the collection and reporting of adverse events, becomes aware, from any information, including any trend analysis, that a reportable MDR event or events necessitates remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health.

(3) If you are an importer, you are considered to have become aware of an event when any of your employees becomes aware of a reportable event that is required to be reported by you within 30 days.

(c) Caused or contributed means that a death or serious injury was or may have been attributed to a medical device, or that a medical device was or may have been a factor in a death or serious injury, including events occurring as a result of:

(1) Failure,

(2) Malfunction,

(3) Improper or inadequate design,

(4) Manufacture,

(5) Labeling, or

(6) User error.

(d) Device user facility means a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, nursing home, outpatient diagnostic facility, or outpatient treatment facility as defined in this section, which is not a physician's office, as defined in this section. School nurse offices and employee health units are not device user facilities.

(e) Distributor means any person (other than the manufacturer or importer) who furthers the marketing of a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate user, but who does not repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package. If you repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling, you are considered a manufacturer as defined in this section.

(f) Expected life of a device means the time that a device is expected to remain functional after it is placed into use. Certain implanted devices have specified “end of life” (EOL) dates. Other devices are not labeled as to their respective EOL, but are expected to remain operational through activities such as maintenance, repairs, or upgrades, for an estimated period of time.

(g) FDA, we, us, or Agency means the Food and Drug Administration.

(h) Five-day report means a medical device report that must be submitted by a manufacturer to us under § 803.53 within 5 work days.

(i) Hospital means a distinct entity that operates for the primary purpose of providing diagnostic, therapeutic (such as medical, occupational, speech, physical), surgical, and other patient services for specific and general medical conditions. Hospitals include general, chronic disease, rehabilitative, psychiatric, and other special-purpose facilities. A hospital may be either independent (e.g., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or may be operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of another entity). A hospital is covered by this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the hospital must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the hospital.

(j) Importer means any person who imports a device into the United States and who furthers the marketing of a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate user, but who does not repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package. If you repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling, you are considered a manufacturer as defined in this section.

(k) Malfunction means the failure of a device to meet its performance specifications or otherwise perform as intended. Performance specifications include all claims made in the labeling for the device. The intended performance of a device refers to the intended use for which the device is labeled or marketed, as defined in § 801.4 of this chapter.

(l) Manufacturer means any person who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, or processes a device by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedure. The term includes any person who either:

(1) Repackages or otherwise changes the container, wrapper, or labeling of a device in furtherance of the distribution of the device from the original place of manufacture;

(2) Initiates specifications for devices that are manufactured by a second party for subsequent distribution by the person initiating the specifications;

(3) Manufactures components or accessories that are devices that are ready to be used and are intended to be commercially distributed and intended to be used as is, or are processed by a licensed practitioner or other qualified person to meet the needs of a particular patient; or

(4) Is the U.S. agent of a foreign manufacturer.

(m) Manufacturer or importer report number. This number uniquely identifies each individual adverse event report submitted by a manufacturer or importer. This number consists of the following three parts:

(1) The FDA registration number for the manufacturing site of the reported device, or the registration number for the importer. If the manufacturing site or the importer does not have an establishment registration number, we will assign a temporary MDR reporting number until the site is registered in accordance with part 807 of this chapter. We will inform the manufacturer or importer of the temporary MDR reporting number;

(2) The four-digit calendar year in which the report is submitted; and

(3) The five-digit sequence number of the reports submitted during the year, starting with 00001. (For example, the complete number will appear as follows: 1234567-2011-00001.)

(n) MDR means medical device report.

(o) MDR reportable event (or reportable event) means:

(1) An event that user facilities become aware of that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or

(2) An event that manufacturers or importers become aware of that reasonably suggests that one of their marketed devices:

(i) May have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury, or

(ii) Has malfunctioned and that the device or a similar device marketed by the manufacturer or importer would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.

(p) Medical personnel means an individual who:

(1) Is licensed, registered, or certified by a State, territory, or other governing body, to administer health care;

(2) Has received a diploma or a degree in a professional or scientific discipline;

(3) Is an employee responsible for receiving medical complaints or adverse event reports; or

(4) Is a supervisor of these persons.

(q) Nursing home means:

(1) An independent entity (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or one operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity) that operates for the primary purpose of providing:

(i) Skilled nursing care and related services for persons who require medical or nursing care;

(ii) Hospice care to the terminally ill; or

(iii) Services for the rehabilitation of the injured, disabled, or sick.

(2) A nursing home is subject to this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the nursing home must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the nursing home.

(r) Outpatient diagnostic facility means:

(1) A distinct entity that:

(i) Operates for the primary purpose of conducting medical diagnostic tests on patients,

(ii) Does not assume ongoing responsibility for patient care, and

(iii) Provides its services for use by other medical personnel.

(2) Outpatient diagnostic facilities include outpatient facilities providing radiography, mammography, ultrasonography, electrocardiography, magnetic resonance imaging, computerized axial tomography, and in vitro testing. An outpatient diagnostic facility may be either independent (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity). An outpatient diagnostic facility is covered by this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the outpatient diagnostic facility must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the outpatient diagnostic facility.

(s) Outpatient treatment facility means a distinct entity that operates for the primary purpose of providing nonsurgical therapeutic (medical, occupational, or physical) care on an outpatient basis or in a home health care setting. Outpatient treatment facilities include ambulance providers, rescue services, and home health care groups. Examples of services provided by outpatient treatment facilities include the following: Cardiac defibrillation, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, pain control, dialysis, speech or physical therapy, and treatment for substance abuse. An outpatient treatment facility may be either independent (i.e., not a part of a provider of services or any other facility) or operated by another medical entity (e.g., under the common ownership, licensure, or control of an entity). An outpatient treatment facility is covered by this regulation regardless of whether it is licensed by a Federal, State, municipal, or local government or whether it is accredited by a recognized accreditation organization. If an adverse event meets the criteria for reporting, the outpatient treatment facility must report that event regardless of the nature or location of the medical service provided by the outpatient treatment facility.

(t) Patient of the facility means any individual who is being diagnosed or treated and/or receiving medical care at or under the control or authority of the facility. This includes employees of the facility or individuals affiliated with the facility who, in the course of their duties, suffer a device-related death or serious injury that has or may have been caused or contributed to by a device used at the facility.

(u) Physician's office means a facility that operates as the office of a physician or other health care professional for the primary purpose of examination, evaluation, and treatment or referral of patients. Examples of physician offices include: Dentist offices, chiropractor offices, optometrist offices, nurse practitioner offices, school nurse offices, school clinics, employee health clinics, or freestanding care units. A physician's office may be independent, a group practice, or part of a Health Maintenance Organization.

(v) Remedial action means any action other than routine maintenance or servicing of a device where such action is necessary to prevent recurrence of a reportable event.

(w) Serious injury means an injury or illness that:

(1) Is life-threatening,

(2) Results in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure, or

(3) Necessitates medical or surgical intervention to preclude permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure. Permanent means irreversible impairment or damage to a body structure or function, excluding trivial impairment or damage.

(x) User facility report number means the number that uniquely identifies each report submitted by a user facility to manufacturers and to us. This number consists of the following three parts:

(1) The user facility's 10-digit Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) number (if the CMS number has fewer than 10 digits, fill the remaining spaces with zeros);

(2) The four-digit calendar year in which the report is submitted; and

(3) The four-digit sequence number of the reports submitted for the year, starting with 0001. (For example, a complete user facility report number will appear as follows: 1234560000-2011-0001. If a user facility has more than one CMS number, it must select one that will be used for all of its MDR reports. If a user facility has no CMS number, it should use all zeros in the appropriate space in its initial report (e.g., 0000000000-2011-0001). We will assign a number for future use and send that number to the user facility. This number is used in our record of the initial report, in subsequent reports, and in any correspondence with the user facility. If a facility has multiple sites, the primary site may submit reports for all sites and use one reporting number for all sites if the primary site provides the name, address, and CMS number for each respective site.)

(y) Work day means Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.

(z) [Reserved]

(aa) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(bb) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

(a) We may disclose to the public any report, including any FDA record of a telephone report, submitted under this part. Our disclosures are governed by part 20 of this chapter.

(b) Before we disclose a report to the public, we will delete the following:

(1) Any information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61 of this chapter;

(2) Any personal, medical, and similar information, including the serial number of implanted devices, which would constitute an invasion of personal privacy under § 20.63 of this chapter. However, if a patient requests a report, we will disclose to that patient all the information in the report concerning that patient, as provided in § 20.61 of this chapter; and

(3) Any names and other identifying information of a third party that voluntarily submitted an adverse event report.

(c) We may not disclose the identity of a device user facility that makes a report under this part except in connection with:

(1) An action brought to enforce section 301(q) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 331(q)), including the failure or refusal to furnish material or information required by section 519 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360i));

(2) A communication to a manufacturer of a device that is the subject of a report required to be submitted by a user facility under § 803.30; or

(3) A disclosure to employees of the Department of Health and Human Services, to the Department of Justice, or to the duly authorized committees and subcommittees of the Congress.

(a) If you are a device user facility, you must submit reports (described in subpart C of this part), as follows:

(1) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of a reportable event:

(i) Submit reports of device-related deaths to us and to the manufacturer, if known, or

(ii) Submit reports of device-related serious injuries to the manufacturers or, if the manufacturer is unknown, submit reports to us.

(2) Submit annual reports (described in § 803.33) to us.

(b) If you are an importer, you must submit reports (described in subpart D of this part), as follows:

(1) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of a reportable event:

(i) Submit reports of device-related deaths or serious injuries to us and to the manufacturer or

(ii) Submit reports of device-related malfunctions to the manufacturer.

(2) [Reserved]

(c) If you are a manufacturer, you must submit reports (described in subpart E of this part) to us, as follows:

(1) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of a reportable death, serious injury, or malfunction.

(2) Submit reports of individual adverse events no later than 5 work days after the day that you become aware of:

(i) A reportable event that requires remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health or

(ii) A reportable event for which we made a written request.

(3) Submit supplemental reports if you obtain information that you did not submit in an initial report.

(a) If you are a manufacturer or importer, you must submit reports of individual adverse events to FDA in an electronic format in accordance with § 803.12(a) and § 803.20, unless granted an exemption under § 803.19.

(b) Importer reports submitted to device manufacturers may be in paper format or an electronic format that includes all required data fields to ensure that the manufacturer has all required information.

(c) If you are a user facility, you must submit reports of individual adverse events in accordance with § 803.12(b) and § 803.20.

(d) Form FDA 3500A is available on the Internet at http://www.fda.gov/medwatch/getforms.htm or from Division of International and Consumer Education, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, by email: DICE@fda.hhs.gov, FAX: 301-847-8149, or telephone: 800-638-2041.

(a) Manufacturers and importers must submit initial and supplemental or followup reports to FDA in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive.

(b) User facilities that submit their reports and additional information to FDA electronically must use an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive. User facilities that submit their reports to FDA on paper must submit any written report or additional information required under this part to FDA, CDRH, Medical Device Reporting, P.O. Box 3002, Rockville, MD 20847-3002, using Form FDA 3500A. Each report must be identified (e.g., “User Facility Report” or “Annual Report”).

(c) If you are confronted with a public health emergency, this can be brought to FDA's attention by contacting FDA's Office of Crisis Management, Emergency Operations Center by telephone, 24-hours a day, at 301-796-8240 or toll free at 866-300-4374, followed by the submission of an email to: emergency.operations@fda.hhs.gov.

(d) You may submit a voluntary telephone report to the MedWatch office at 800-FDA-1088. You may also obtain information regarding voluntary reporting from the MedWatch office at 800-FDA-1088. You may also find the voluntary Form FDA 3500 and instructions to complete it at: http://www.fda.gov/Safety/MedWatch/HowToReport/DownloadForms/default.htm.

Yes. You must submit all reports required by this part in English.

(a) We will notify you in writing if we require additional information and will tell you what information we need. We will require additional information if we determine that protection of the public health requires additional or clarifying information for medical device reports submitted to us and in cases when the additional information is beyond the scope of FDA reporting forms or is not readily accessible to us.

(b) In any request under this section, we will state the reason or purpose for the information request, specify the due date for submitting the information, and clearly identify the reported event(s) related to our request. If we verbally request additional information, we will confirm the request in writing.

No. A report or other information submitted by you, and our release of that report or information, is not necessarily an admission that the device, or you or your employees, caused or contributed to the reportable event. You do not have to admit and may deny that the report or information submitted under this part constitutes an admission that the device, you, or your employees, caused or contributed to a reportable event.

If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you must develop, maintain, and implement written MDR procedures for the following:

(a) Internal systems that provide for:

(1) Timely and effective identification, communication, and evaluation of events that may be subject to MDR requirements;

(2) A standardized review process or procedure for determining when an event meets the criteria for reporting under this part; and

(3) Timely transmission of complete medical device reports to manufacturers or to us, or to both if required.

(b) Documentation and recordkeeping requirements for:

(1) Information that was evaluated to determine if an event was reportable;

(2) All medical device reports and information submitted to manufacturers and/or us;

(3) Any information that was evaluated for the purpose of preparing the submission of annual reports; and

(4) Systems that ensure access to information that facilitates timely followup and inspection by us.

(a) If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you must establish and maintain MDR event files. You must clearly identify all MDR event files and maintain them to facilitate timely access.

(b)(1) For purposes of this part, “MDR event files” are written or electronic files maintained by user facilities, importers, and manufacturers. MDR event files may incorporate references to other information (e.g., medical records, patient files, engineering reports), in lieu of copying and maintaining duplicates in this file. Your MDR event files must contain:

(i) Information in your possession or references to information related to the adverse event, including all documentation of your deliberations and decision making processes used to determine if a device-related death, serious injury, or malfunction was or was not reportable under this part;

(ii) Copies of all reports submitted under this part (whether paper or electronic), and of all other information related to the event that you submitted to us or other entities such as an importer, distributor, or manufacturer; and

(iii) Copies of all electronic acknowledgments FDA sends you in response to electronic MDR submissions.

(2) If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you must permit any authorized FDA employee, at all reasonable times, to access, to copy, and to verify the records required by this part.

(c) If you are a user facility, you must retain an MDR event file relating to an adverse event for a period of 2 years from the date of the event. If you are a manufacturer or importer, you must retain an MDR event file relating to an adverse event for a period of 2 years from the date of the event or a period of time equivalent to the expected life of the device, whichever is greater. If the device is no longer distributed, you still must maintain MDR event files for the time periods described in this paragraph (c).

(d)(1) If you are a device distributor, you must establish and maintain device complaint records (files). Your records must contain any incident information, including any written, electronic, or oral communication, either received or generated by you, that alleges deficiencies related to the identity (e.g., labeling), quality, durability, reliability, safety, effectiveness, or performance of a device. You must also maintain information about your evaluation of the allegations, if any, in the incident record. You must clearly identify the records as device incident records and file these records by device name. You may maintain these records in written or electronic format. You must back up any file maintained in electronic format.

(2) You must retain copies of the required device incident records for a period of 2 years from the date of inclusion of the record in the file or for a period of time equivalent to the expected life of the device, whichever is greater. You must maintain copies of these records for this period even if you no longer distribute the device.

(3) You must maintain the device complaint files established under this section at your principal business establishment. If you are also a manufacturer, you may maintain the file at the same location as you maintain your complaint file under part 820 of this chapter. You must permit any authorized FDA employee, at all reasonable times, to access, to copy, and to verify the records required by this part.

(e) If you are a manufacturer, you may maintain MDR event files as part of your complaint file, under part 820 of this chapter, if you prominently identify these records as MDR reportable events. We will not consider your submitted MDR report to comply with this part unless you evaluate an event in accordance with the quality system requirements described in part 820 of this chapter. You must document and maintain in your MDR event files an explanation of why you did not submit or could not obtain any information required by this part, as well as the results of your evaluation of each event.

(a) We exempt the following persons from the adverse event reporting requirements in this part:

(1) A licensed practitioner who prescribes or administers devices intended for use in humans and manufactures or imports devices solely for use in diagnosing and treating persons with whom the practitioner has a “physician-patient” relationship;

(2) An individual who manufactures devices intended for use in humans solely for this person's use in research or teaching and not for sale. This includes any person who is subject to alternative reporting requirements under the investigational device exemption regulations (described in part 812 of this chapter), which require reporting of all adverse device effects; and

(3) Dental laboratories or optical laboratories.

(b) If you are a manufacturer, importer, or user facility, you may request an exemption or variance from any or all of the reporting requirements in this part, including the requirements of § 803.12. You must submit the request to us in writing at the following address: MDR Exemption Requests, Office of Surveillance and Biometrics, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3217, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Your request must include information necessary to identify you and the device; a complete statement of the request for exemption, variance, or alternative reporting; and an explanation why your request is justified. If you are requesting an exemption from the requirement to submit reports to FDA in electronic format under § 803.12(a), your request should indicate for how long you will require this exemption.

(c) If you are a manufacturer, importer, or user facility, we may grant in writing an exemption or variance from, or alternative to, any or all of the reporting requirements in this part, and may change the frequency of reporting to quarterly, semiannually, annually or other appropriate time period. We may grant these modifications in response to your request, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, or at our discretion. When we grant modifications to the reporting requirements, we may impose other reporting requirements to ensure the protection of public health.

(d) We may revoke or modify in writing an exemption, variance, or alternative reporting requirement if we determine that revocation or modification is necessary to protect the public health.

(e) If we grant your request for a reporting modification, you must submit any reports or information required in our approval of the modification. The conditions of the approval will replace and supersede the regular reporting requirement specified in this part until such time that we revoke or modify the alternative reporting requirements in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section or until the date specified in our response granting your variance, at which time the provisions of this part will again apply.

(a) What form must I complete and submit?

(1) If you are a health professional or consumer or other entity, you may submit voluntary reports to FDA regarding devices or other FDA-regulated products using the Form FDA 3500.

(2) To submit a mandatory report in written form, a user facility must use Form FDA 3500A.

(3) An electronic submission of a mandatory report from a user facility, importer, or manufacturer must contain the information from the applicable blocks of Form FDA 3500A. All electronic submissions must include information about the patient, the event, the device, and the “initial reporter.” An electronic submission from a user facility or importer must include the information from block F. An electronic submission from a manufacturer must include the information from blocks G and H. If you are a manufacturer and you receive a report from a user facility or importer, you must incorporate that information in your electronic submission and include any corrected or missing information.

(b) To whom must I submit reports and when?

(1) If you are a user facility, you must submit MDR reports to:

(i) The manufacturer and to us no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a death or

(ii) The manufacturer no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury. If the manufacturer is not known, you must submit this report to us.

(2) If you are an importer, you must submit MDR reports to:

(i) The manufacturer and to us, no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or

(ii) The manufacturer, no later than 30 calendar days after receiving information that a device you market has malfunctioned and that this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.

(3) If you are a manufacturer, you must submit MDR reports to us:

(i) No later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests that a device may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or

(ii) No later than 30 calendar days after the day that you become aware of information that reasonably suggests a device has malfunctioned and that this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur; or

(iii) Within 5 work days if required by § 803.53.

(c) What kind of information reasonably suggests that a reportable event has occurred?

(1) Any information, including professional, scientific, or medical facts, observations, or opinions, may reasonably suggest that a device has caused or may have caused or contributed to an MDR reportable event. An MDR reportable event is a death, a serious injury, or, if you are a manufacturer or importer, a malfunction that would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur.

(2) If you are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, you do not have to report an adverse event if you have information that would lead a person who is qualified to make a medical judgment reasonably to conclude that a device did not cause or contribute to a death or serious injury, or that a malfunction would not be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if it were to recur. Persons qualified to make a medical judgment include physicians, nurses, risk managers, and biomedical engineers. You must keep in your MDR event files (described in § 803.18) the information that the qualified person used to determine whether or not a device-related event was reportable.

(a) The MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instruction Manual contains adverse event codes for use with Form FDA 3500A. You may obtain the coding manual from FDA's Web site at: http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/Safety/ReportaProblem/FormsandInstructions/default.htm; and from the Division of Small Manufacturers, International and Consumer Assistance, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, FAX: 301-847-8149, or email to DSMICA@fda.hhs.gov.

(b) We may sometimes use additional coding of information on the reporting forms or modify the existing codes. If we do make modifications, we will ensure that we make the new coding information available to all reporters.

(a) If you become aware of information from multiple sources regarding the same patient and same reportable event, you may submit one medical device report.

(b) You are not required to submit a medical device report if:

(1) You are a user facility, importer, or manufacturer, and you determine that the information received is erroneous in that a device-related adverse event did not occur. You must retain documentation of these reports in your MDR files for the time periods specified in § 803.18.

(2) You are a manufacturer or importer and you did not manufacture or import the device about which you have adverse event information. When you receive reportable event information in error, you must forward this information to us with a cover letter explaining that you did not manufacture or import the device in question.

(a) You may obtain information on how to prepare and submit reports in an electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive at: http://www.fda.gov/ForIndustry/FDAeSubmitter/ucm107903.htm.

(b) We may sometimes update information on how to prepare and submit reports electronically. If we do make modifications, we will ensure that we alert reporters by updating the eMDR Web page.

(a) You must submit reports to the manufacturer or to us, or both, as specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section as follows:

(1) Reports of death. You must submit a report to us as soon as practicable but no more than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to the death of a patient of your facility. You must also submit the report to the device manufacturer, if known. You must submit the information required by § 803.32. Reports sent to the Agency must be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(b).

(2) Reports of serious injury. You must submit a report to the manufacturer of the device no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury to a patient of your facility. If the manufacturer is not known, you must submit the report to us. You must report information required by § 803.32. Reports sent to the Agency must be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12 (b).

(b) What information does FDA consider “reasonably known” to me? You must submit all information required in this subpart C that is reasonably known to you. This information includes information found in documents that you possess and any information that becomes available as a result of reasonable followup within your facility. You are not required to evaluate or investigate the event by obtaining or evaluating information that you do not reasonably know.

You must include the following information in your report, if reasonably known to you, as described in § 803.30(b). These types of information correspond generally to the elements of Form FDA 3500A:

(a) Patient information (Form FDA 3500A, Block A). You must submit the following:

(1) Patient name or other identifier;

(2) Patient age at the time of event, or date of birth;

(3) Patient gender; and

(4) Patient weight.

(b) Adverse event or product problem (Form FDA 3500A, Block B). You must submit the following:

(1) Identification of adverse event or product problem;

(2) Outcomes attributed to the adverse event (e.g., death or serious injury). An outcome is considered a serious injury if it is:

(i) A life-threatening injury or illness;

(ii) A disability resulting in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure; or

(iii) An injury or illness that requires intervention to prevent permanent impairment of a body structure or function;

(3) Date of event;

(4) Date of this report;

(5) Description of event or problem, including a discussion of how the device was involved, nature of the problem, patient followup or required treatment, and any environmental conditions that may have influenced the event;

(6) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and

(7) Description of other relevant history, including preexisting medical conditions.

(c) Device information (Form FDA 3500A, Block D). You must submit the following:

(1) Brand name;

(2) Product Code, if known, and Common Device Name;

(3) Manufacturer name, city, and state;

(4) Model number, catalog number, serial number, lot number, or other identifying number; expiration date; and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;

(5) Operator of the device (health professional, lay user/patient, other);

(6) Date of device implantation (month, day, year), if applicable;

(7) Date of device explantation (month, day, year), if applicable;

(8) Whether the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (Yes, No)?

(9) If the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (yes to paragraph (c)(8) of this section), the name and address of the reprocessor;

(10) Whether the device was available for evaluation and whether the device was returned to the manufacturer; if so, the date it was returned to the manufacturer; and

(11) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates. (Do not report products that were used to treat the event.)

(d) Initial reporter information (Form FDA 3500A, Block E). You must submit the following:

(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the reporter who initially provided information to you, or to the manufacturer or distributor;

(2) Whether the initial reporter is a health professional;

(3) Occupation; and

(4) Whether the initial reporter also sent a copy of the report to us, if known.

(e) User facility information (Form FDA 3500A, Block F). You must submit the following:

(1) An indication that this is a user facility report (by marking the user facility box on the form);

(2) Your user facility number;

(3) Your address;

(4) Your contact person;

(5) Your contact person's telephone number;

(6) Date that you became aware of the event (month, day, year);

(7) Type of report (initial or followup); if it is a followup, you must include the report number of the initial report;

(8) Date of your report (month, day, year);

(9) Approximate age of device;

(10) Event problem codes - patient code and device code (refer to the “MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instructions”);

(11) Whether a report was sent to us and the date it was sent (month, day, year);

(12) Location where the event occurred;

(13) Whether the report was sent to the manufacturer and the date it was sent (month, day, year); and

(14) Manufacturer name and address, if available.

(a) You must submit to us an annual report on Form FDA 3419. You must submit an annual report by January 1, of each year. You may obtain this form from the following sources:

(1) On the Internet at: http://www.fda.gov/downloads/AboutFDA/ReportsManualsForms/Forms/UCM080796.pdf or

(2) Division of International and Consumer Education, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, by email: DICE@fda.hhs.gov, FAX: 301-847-8149, or telephone: 800-638-2041.

(b) You must clearly identify your annual report as such. You must submit your annual report to FDA, CDRH, Medical Device Reporting, P.O. Box 3002, Rockville, MD 20847-3002. Your annual report must include:

(1) Your CMS provider number used for medical device reports, or the number assigned by us for reporting purposes in accordance with § 803.3;

(2) Reporting year;

(3) Your name and complete address;

(4) Total number of reports attached or summarized;

(5) Date of the annual report and report numbers identifying the range of medical device reports that you submitted during the report period (e.g., 1234567890-2011-0001 through 1000);

(6) Name, position title, and complete address of the individual designated as your contact person responsible for reporting to us and whether that person is a new contact for you; and

(7) Information for each reportable event that occurred during the annual reporting period including:

(i) Report number;

(ii) Name and address of the device manufacturer;

(iii) Device brand name and common name;

(iv) Product model, catalog, serial, and lot number and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;

(v) A brief description of the event reported to the manufacturer and/or us; and

(vi) Where the report was submitted, i.e., to the manufacturer, importer, or us.

(c) In lieu of submitting the information in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, you may submit a copy of each medical device report that you submitted to the manufacturers and/or to us during the reporting period.

(d) If you did not submit any medical device reports to manufacturers or us during the time period, you do not need to submit an annual report.

(a) Reports of deaths or serious injuries. You must submit a report to us, and a copy of this report to the manufacturer, as soon as practicable, but no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you receive or otherwise become aware of information from any source, including user facilities, individuals, or medical or scientific literature, whether published or unpublished, that reasonably suggests that one of your marketed devices may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury. You must submit the information required by § 803.42. Reports sent to the Agency must be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a).

(b) Reports of malfunctions. You must submit a report to the manufacturer as soon as practicable but no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you receive or otherwise become aware of information from any source, including user facilities, individuals, or through your own research, testing, evaluation, servicing, or maintenance of one of your devices, that reasonably suggests that one of your devices has malfunctioned and that this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury if the malfunction were to recur. You must submit the information required by § 803.42. Reports to manufacturers may be made in accordance with § 803.11(b).

You must include the following information in your report, if the information is known or should be known to you, as described in § 803.40. These types of information correspond generally to the format of Form FDA 3500A:

(a) Patient information (Form FDA 3500A, Block A). You must submit the following:

(1) Patient name or other identifier;

(2) Patient age at the time of event, or date of birth;

(3) Patient gender; and

(4) Patient weight.

(b) Adverse event or product problem (Form FDA 3500A, Block B). You must submit the following:

(1) Identification of adverse event or product problem;

(2) Outcomes attributed to the adverse event (e.g., death or serious injury). An outcome is considered a serious injury if it is:

(i) A life-threatening injury or illness;

(ii) A disability resulting in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure; or

(iii) An injury or illness that requires intervention to prevent permanent impairment of a body structure or function;

(3) Date of event;

(4) Date of this report;

(5) Description of the event or problem, including a discussion of how the device was involved, nature of the problem, patient followup or required treatment, and any environmental conditions that may have influenced the event;

(6) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and

(7) Description of other relevant patient history, including preexisting medical conditions.

(c) Device information (Form FDA 3500A, Block D). You must submit the following:

(1) Brand name;

(2) Product Code, if known, and Common Device Name;

(3) Manufacturer name, city, and state;

(4) Model number, catalog number, serial number, lot number, or other identifying number; expiration date; and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;

(5) Operator of the device (health professional, lay user/patient, other);

(6) Date of device implantation (month, day, year), if applicable;

(7) Date of device explanation (month, day, year), if applicable;

(8) Whether the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (Yes, No)?

(9) If the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (yes to paragraph (c)(8) of this section), the name and address of the reprocessor;

(10) Whether the device was available for evaluation, and whether the device was returned to the manufacturer, and if so, the date it was returned to the manufacturer; and

(11) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates. (Do not report products that were used to treat the event.)

(d) Initial reporter information (Form FDA 3500A, Block E). You must submit the following:

(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the reporter who initially provided information to the manufacturer, user facility, or distributor;

(2) Whether the initial reporter is a health professional;

(3) Occupation; and

(4) Whether the initial reporter also sent a copy of the report to us, if known.

(e) Importer information (Form FDA 3500A, Block F). You must submit the following:

(1) An indication that this is an importer report (by marking the importer box on the form);

(2) Your importer report number;

(3) Your address;

(4) Your contact person;

(5) Your contact person's telephone number;

(6) Date that you became aware of the event (month, day, year);

(7) Type of report (initial or followup). If it is a followup report, you must include the report number of your initial report;

(8) Date of your report (month, day, year);

(9) Approximate age of device;

(10) Event problem codes - patient code and device code (refer to FDA MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instructions);

(11) Whether a report was sent to us and the date it was sent (month, day, year);

(12) Location where event occurred;

(13) Whether a report was sent to the manufacturer and the date it was sent (month, day, year); and

(14) Manufacturer name and address, if available.

(a) If you are a manufacturer, you must report to us the information required by § 803.52 in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a), no later than 30 calendar days after the day that you receive or otherwise become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device that you market:

(1) May have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury or

(2) Has malfunctioned and this device or a similar device that you market would be likely to cause or contribute to a death or serious injury, if the malfunction were to recur.

(b) What information does FDA consider “reasonably known” to me?

(1) You must submit all information required in this subpart E that is reasonably known to you. We consider the following information to be reasonably known to you:

(i) Any information that you can obtain by contacting a user facility, importer, or other initial reporter;

(ii) Any information in your possession; or

(iii) Any information that you can obtain by analysis, testing, or other evaluation of the device.

(2) You are responsible for obtaining and submitting to us information that is incomplete or missing from reports submitted by user facilities, importers, and other initial reporters.

(3) You are also responsible for conducting an investigation of each event and evaluating the cause of the event. If you cannot submit complete information on a report, you must provide a statement explaining why this information was incomplete and the steps you took to obtain the information. If you later obtain any required information that was not available at the time you filed your initial report, you must submit this information in a supplemental report under § 803.56 in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a).

You must include the following information in your reports, if known or reasonably known to you, as described in § 803.50(b). These types of information correspond generally to the format of Form FDA 3500A:

(a) Patient information (Form FDA 3500A, Block A). You must submit the following:

(1) Patient name or other identifier;

(2) Patient age at the time of event, or date of birth;

(3) Patient gender; and

(4) Patient weight.

(b) Adverse event or product problem (Form FDA 3500A, Block B). You must submit the following:

(1) Identification of adverse event or product problem;

(2) Outcomes attributed to the adverse event (e.g., death or serious injury). An outcome is considered a serious injury if it is:

(i) A life-threatening injury or illness;

(ii) A disability resulting in permanent impairment of a body function or permanent damage to a body structure; or

(iii) An injury or illness that requires intervention to prevent permanent impairment of a body structure or function;

(3) Date of event;

(4) Date of this report;

(5) Description of the event or problem, including a discussion of how the device was involved, nature of the problem, patient followup or required treatment, and any environmental conditions that may have influenced the event;

(6) Description of relevant tests, including dates and laboratory data; and

(7) Other relevant patient history including preexisting medical conditions.

(c) Device information (Form FDA 3500A, Block D). You must submit the following:

(1) Brand name;

(2) Product Code, if known, and Common Device Name;

(3) Manufacturer name, city, and state;

(4) Model number, catalog number, serial number, lot number, or other identifying number; expiration date; and unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package;

(5) Operator of the device (health professional, lay user/patient, other);

(6) Date of device implantation (month, day, year), if applicable;

(7) Date of device explantation (month, day, year), if applicable;

(8) Whether the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (Yes, No)?

(9) If the device is a single-use device that was reprocessed and reused on a patient (yes to paragraph (c)(8) of this section), the name and address of the reprocessor;

(10) Whether the device was available for evaluation, and whether the device was returned to the manufacturer, and if so, the date it was returned to the manufacturer; and

(11) Concomitant medical products and therapy dates. (Do not report products that were used to treat the event.)

(d) Initial reporter information (Form FDA 3500A, Block E). You must submit the following:

(1) Name, address, and telephone number of the reporter who initially provided information to you, or to the user facility or importer;

(2) Whether the initial reporter is a health professional;

(3) Occupation; and

(4) Whether the initial reporter also sent a copy of the report to us, if known.

(e) Reporting information for all manufacturers (Form FDA 3500A, Block G). You must submit the following:

(1) Your reporting office's contact name and address and device manufacturing site;

(2) Your contact person's telephone number;

(3) Your report sources;

(4) Date received by you (month, day, year);

(5) PMA/510k Number and whether or not the product is a combination product;

(6) Type of report being submitted (e.g., 5-day, initial, followup); and

(7) Your report number.

(f) Device manufacturer information (Form FDA 3500A, Block H). You must submit the following:

(1) Type of reportable event (death, serious injury, malfunction, etc.);

(2) Type of followup report, if applicable (e.g., correction, response to FDA request, etc);

(3) If the device was returned to you and evaluated by you, you must include a summary of the evaluation. If you did not perform an evaluation, you must explain why you did not perform an evaluation;

(4) Device manufacture date (month, day, year);

(5) Whether the device was labeled for single use;

(6) Evaluation codes (including event codes, method of evaluation, result, and conclusion codes) (refer to FDA MedWatch Medical Device Reporting Code Instructions);

(7) Whether remedial action was taken and the type of action;

(8) Whether the use of the device was initial, reuse, or unknown;

(9) Whether remedial action was reported as a removal or correction under section 519(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and if it was, provide the correction/removal report number; and

(10) Your additional narrative; and/or

(11) Corrected data, including:

(i) Any information missing on the user facility report or importer report, including any event codes that were not reported, or information corrected on these forms after your verification;

(ii) For each event code provided by the user facility under § 803.32(e)(10) or the importer under § 803.42(e)(10), you must include a statement of whether the type of the event represented by the code is addressed in the device labeling; and

(iii) If your report omits any required information, you must explain why this information was not provided and the steps taken to obtain this information.

You must submit a 5-day report to us with the information required by § 803.52 in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a) no later than 5 work days after the day that you become aware that:

(a) An MDR reportable event necessitates remedial action to prevent an unreasonable risk of substantial harm to the public health. You may become aware of the need for remedial action from any information, including any trend analysis or

(b) We have made a written request for the submission of a 5-day report. If you receive such a written request from us, you must submit, without further requests, a 5-day report for all subsequent events of the same nature that involve substantially similar devices for the time period specified in the written request. We may extend the time period stated in the original written request if we determine it is in the interest of the public health.

If you are a manufacturer, when you obtain information required under this part that you did not provide because it was not known or was not available when you submitted the initial report, you must submit the supplemental information to us within 30 calendar days of the day that you receive this information. You must submit the supplemental or followup report in accordance with the requirements of § 803.12(a). On a supplemental or followup report, you must:

(a) Indicate that the report being submitted is a supplemental or followup report;

(b) Submit the appropriate identification numbers of the report that you are updating with the supplemental information (e.g., your original manufacturer report number and the user facility or importer report number of any report on which your report was based), if applicable; and

(c) Include only the new, changed, or corrected information.

(a) Every foreign manufacturer whose devices are distributed in the United States shall designate a U.S. agent to be responsible for reporting in accordance with § 807.40 of this chapter. The U.S. designated agent accepts responsibility for the duties that such designation entails. Upon the effective date of this regulation, foreign manufacturers shall inform FDA, by letter, of the name and address of the U.S. agent designated under this section and § 807.40 of this chapter, and shall update this information as necessary. Such updated information shall be submitted to FDA, within 5 days of a change in the designated agent information.

(b) U.S.-designated agents of foreign manufacturers are required to:

(1) Report to FDA in accordance with §§ 803.50, 803.52, 803.53, and 803.56;

(2) Conduct, or obtain from the foreign manufacturer the necessary information regarding, the investigation and evaluation of the event to comport with the requirements of § 803.50;

(3) Forward MDR complaints to the foreign manufacturer and maintain documentation of this requirement;

(4) Maintain complaint files in accordance with § 803.18; and

(5) Register, list, and submit premarket notifications in accordance with part 807 of this chapter.

(a) This part implements the provisions of section 519(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) requiring device manufacturers and importers to report promptly to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) certain actions concerning device corrections and removals, and to maintain records of all corrections and removals regardless of whether such corrections and removals are required to be reported to FDA.

(b) The following actions are exempt from the reporting requirements of this part:

(1) Actions taken by device manufacturers or importers to improve the performance or quality of a device but that do not reduce a risk to health posed by the device or remedy a violation of the act caused by the device.

(2) Market withdrawal as defined in § 806.2(i)

(3) Routine servicing as defined in § 806.2(l).

(4) Stock recovery as defined in § 806.2(m).

As used in this part:

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(b) Agency or FDA means the Food and Drug Administration.

(c) Consignee means any person or firm that has received, purchased, or used a device subject to correction or removal.

(d) Correction means the repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including patient monitoring) of a device without its physical removal from its point of use to some other location.

(e) Correction or removal report number means the number that uniquely identifies each report submitted.

(f) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(g) Importer means, for the purposes of this part, any person who imports a device into the United States.

(h) Manufacturer means any person who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, or processes a device by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures. The term includes any person who:

(1) Repackages or otherwise changes the container, wrapper, or labeling of a device in furtherance of the distribution of the device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate user or consumer;

(2) Initiates specifications for devices that are manufactured by a second party for subsequent distribution by the person initiating the specifications; or

(3) Manufactures components or accessories which are devices that are ready to be used and are intended to be commercially distributed and are intended to be used as is, or are processed by a licensed practitioner or other qualified person to meet the needs of a particular patient.

(i) Market withdrawal means a correction or removal of a distributed device that involves a minor violation of the act that would not be subject to legal action by FDA or that involves no violation of the act, e.g., normal stock rotation practices.

(j) Removal means the physical removal of a device from its point of use to some other location for repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection.

(k) Risk to health means

(1) A reasonable probability that use of, or exposure to, the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death; or

(2) That use of, or exposure to, the product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences, or an outcome where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote.

(l) Routine servicing means any regularly scheduled maintenance of a device, including the replacement of parts at the end of their normal life expectancy, e.g., calibration, replacement of batteries, and responses to normal wear and tear. Repairs of an unexpected nature, replacement of parts earlier than their normal life expectancy, or identical repairs or replacements of multiple units of a device are not routine servicing.

(m) Stock recovery means the correction or removal of a device that has not been marketed or that has not left the direct control of the manufacturer, i.e., the device is located on the premises owned, or under the control of, the manufacturer, and no portion of the lot, model, code, or other relevant unit involved in the corrective or removal action has been released for sale or use.

(n) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A UDI is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

(a) Each device manufacturer or importer shall submit a written report to FDA of any correction or removal of a device initiated by such manufacturer or importer if the correction or removal was initiated:

(1) To reduce a risk to health posed by the device; or

(2) To remedy a violation of the act caused by the device which may present a risk to health unless the information has already been provided as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section or the corrective or removal action is exempt from the reporting requirements under § 806.1(b).

(b) The manufacturer or importer shall submit any report required by paragraph (a) of this section within 10-working days of initiating such correction or removal.

(c) The manufacturer or importer shall include the following information in the report:

(1) The seven digit registration number of the entity responsible for submission of the report of corrective or removal action (if applicable), the month, day, and year that the report is made, and a sequence number (i.e., 001 for the first report, 002 for the second report, 003 etc.), and the report type designation “C” or “R”. For example, the complete number for the first correction report submitted on June 1, 1997, will appear as follows for a firm with the registration number 1234567: 1234567-6/1/97-001-C. The second correction report number submitted by the same firm on July 1, 1997, would be 1234567-7/1/97-002-C etc. For removals, the number will appear as follows: 1234567-6/1/97-001-R and 1234567-7/1/97-002-R, etc. Firms that do not have a seven digit registration number may use seven zeros followed by the month, date, year, and sequence number (i.e. 0000000-6/1/97-001-C for corrections and 0000000-7/1/97-001-R for removals). Reports received without a seven digit registration number will be assigned a seven digit central file number by the district office reviewing the reports.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the manufacturer or importer, and the name, title, address, and telephone number of the manufacturer or importer representative responsible for conducting the device correction or removal.

(3) The brand name and the common name, classification name, or usual name of the device and the intended use of the device.

(4) Marketing status of the device, i.e., any applicable premarket notification number, premarket approval number, or indication that the device is a preamendments device, and the device listing number. A manufacturer or importer that does not have an FDA establishment registration number shall indicate in the report whether it has ever registered with FDA.

(5) The unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package, or the device identifier, universal product code (UPC), model, catalog, or code number of the device and the manufacturing lot or serial number of the device or other identification number.

(6) The manufacturer's name, address, telephone number, and contact person if different from that of the person submitting the report.

(7) A description of the event(s) giving rise to the information reported and the corrective or removal actions that have been, and are expected to be taken.

(8) Any illness or injuries that have occurred with use of the device. If applicable, include the medical device report numbers.

(9) The total number of devices manufactured or distributed subject to the correction or removal and the number in the same batch, lot, or equivalent unit of production subject to the correction or removal.

(10) The date of manufacture or distribution and the device's expiration date or expected life.

(11) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of all domestic and foreign consignees of the device and the dates and number of devices distributed to each such consignee.

(12) A copy of all communications regarding the correction or removal and the names and addresses of all recipients of the communications not provided in accordance with paragraph (c)(11) of this section.

(13) If any required information is not immediately available, a statement as to why it is not available and when it will be submitted.

(d) If, after submitting a report under this part, a manufacturer or importer determines that the same correction or removal should be extended to additional lots or batches of the same device, the manufacturer or importer shall within 10-working days of initiating the extension of the correction or removal, amend the report by submitting an amendment citing the original report number assigned according to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, all of the information required by paragraph (c)(2), and any information required by paragraphs (c)(3) through (c)(12) of this section that is different from the information submitted in the original report. The manufacturer or importer shall also provide a statement in accordance with paragraph (c)(13) of this section for any required information that is not readily available.

(e) A report submitted by a manufacturer or importer under this section (and any release by FDA of that report or information) does not necessarily reflect a conclusion by the manufacturer, importer, or FDA that the report or information constitutes an admission that the device caused or contributed to a death or serious injury. A manufacturer or importer need not admit, and may deny, that the report or information submitted under this section constitutes an admission that the device caused or contributed to a death or serious injury.

(f) No report of correction or removal is required under this part, if a report of the correction or removal is required and has been submitted under parts 803 or 1004 of this chapter.

(a) Each device manufacturer or importer who initiates a correction or removal of a device that is not required to be reported to FDA under § 806.10 shall keep a record of such correction or removal.

(b) Records of corrections and removals not required to be reported to FDA under § 806.10 shall contain the following information:

(1) The brand name, common or usual name, classification, name and product code if known, and the intended use of the device.

(2) The unique device identifier (UDI) of the device, or the device identifier, universal product code (UPC), model, catalog, or code number of the device and the manufacturing lot or serial number of the device or other identification number.

(3) A description of the event(s) giving rise to the information reported and the corrective or removal action that has been, and is expected to be taken.

(4) Justification for not reporting the correction or removal action to FDA, which shall contain conclusions and any followups, and be reviewed and evaluated by a designated person.

(5) A copy of all communications regarding the correction or removal.

(c) The manufacturer or importer shall retain records required under this section for a period of 2 years beyond the expected life of the device, even if the manufacturer or importer has ceased to manufacture or import the device. Records required to be maintained under paragraph (b) of this section must be transferred to the new manufacturer or importer of the device and maintained for the required period of time.

Each device manufacturer or importer required under this part to maintain records and every person who is in charge or custody of such records shall, upon request of an officer or employee designated by FDA and under section 704(e) of the act, permit such officer or employee at all reasonable times to have access to, and to copy and verify, such records and reports.

(a) Any report submitted under this part is available for public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter.

(b) Before public disclosure of a report, FDA will delete from the report:

(1) Any information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61 of this chapter; and

(2) Any personnel, medical, or similar information, including the serial numbers of implanted devices, which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy under § 20.63 of this chapter or 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6); provided, that except for the information under § 20.61 of this chapter or 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), FDA will disclose to a patient who requests a report all the information in the report concerning that patient.

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(b) Commercial distribution means any distribution of a device intended for human use which is held or offered for sale but does not include the following:

(1) Internal or interplant transfer of a device between establishments within the same parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company;

(2) Any distribution of a device intended for human use which has in effect an approved exemption for investigational use under section 520(g) of the act and part 812 of this chapter;

(3) Any distribution of a device, before the effective date of part 812 of this chapter, that was not introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, and that is classified into class III under section 513(f) of the act: Provided, That the device is intended solely for investigational use, and under section 501(f)(2)(A) of the act the device is not required to have an approved premarket approval application as provided in section 515 of the act; or

(4) For foreign establishments, the distribution of any device that is neither imported nor offered for import into the United States.

(c) Establishment means a place of business under one management at one general physical location at which a device is manufactured, assembled, or otherwise processed.

(d) Manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, assembly, or processing of a device means the making by chemical, physical, biological, or other procedures of any article that meets the definition of device in section 201(h) of the act. These terms include the following activities:

(1) Repackaging or otherwise changing the container, wrapper, or labeling of any device package in furtherance of the distribution of the device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes final delivery or sale to the ultimate consumer;

(2) Initial importation of devices manufactured in foreign establishments; or

(3) Initiation of specifications for devices that are manufactured by a second party for subsequent commercial distribution by the person initiating specifications.

(e) Official correspondent means the person designated by the owner or operator of an establishment as responsible for the following:

(1) The annual registration of the establishment;

(2) Contact with the Food and Drug Administration for device listing;

(3) Maintenance and submission of a current list of officers and directors to the Food and Drug Administration upon the request of the Commissioner; and

(4) The receipt of pertinent correspondence from the Food and Drug Administration directed to and involving the owner or operator and/or any of the firm's establishments.

(f) Owner or operator means the corporation, subsidiary, affiliated company, partnership, or proprietor directly responsible for the activities of the registering establishment.

(g) Initial importer means any importer who furthers the marketing of a device from a foreign manufacturer to the person who makes the final delivery or sale of the device to the ultimate consumer or user, but does not repackage, or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package.

(h) Any term defined in section 201 of the act shall have that meaning.

(i) Restricted device means a device for which a requirement restricting sale, distribution, or use has been established by a regulation issued under section 520(e) of the act, by order as a condition of premarket approval under section 515(d)(1)(B)(ii) of the act, or by a performance standard issued in accordance with sections 514(a)(2)(B)(v) and 514(b) of the act.

(j) Classification name means the term used by the Food and Drug Administration and its classification panels to describe a device or class of devices for purposes of classifying devices under section 513 of the act.

(k) Product code means the code used by FDA to identify the generic category of a device.

(l) Representative sampling of advertisements means typical advertising material that gives the promotional claims made for the device.

(m) Representative sampling of any other labeling means typical labeling material (excluding labels and package inserts) that gives the promotional claims made for the device.

(n) Material change includes any change or modification in the labeling or advertisements that affects the identity or safety and effectiveness of the device. These changes may include, but are not limited to, changes in the common or usual or proprietary name, declared ingredients or components, intended use, contraindications, warnings, or instructions for use. Changes that are not material may include graphic layouts, grammar, or correction of typographical errors which do not change the content of the labeling, changes in lot number, and, for devices where the biological activity or known composition differs with each lot produced, the labeling containing the actual values for each lot.

(o) 510(k) summary (summary of any information respecting safety and effectiveness) means a summary, submitted under section 513(i) of the act, of the safety and effectiveness information contained in a premarket notification submission upon which a determination of substantial equivalence can be based. Safety and effectiveness information refers to safety and effectiveness data and information supporting a finding of substantial equivalence, including all adverse safety and effectiveness information.

(p) 510(k) statement means a statement, made under section 513(i) of the act, asserting that all information in a premarket notification submission regarding safety and effectiveness will be made available within 30 days of request by any person if the device described in the premarket notification submission is determined to be substantially equivalent. The information to be made available will be a duplicate of the premarket notification submission, including any adverse safety and effectiveness information, but excluding all patient identifiers, and trade secret or confidential commercial information, as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter.

(q) Class III certification means a certification that the submitter of the 510(k) has conducted a reasonable search of all known information about the class III device and other similar, legally marketed devices.

(r) Class III summary means a summary of the types of safety and effectiveness problems associated with the type of device being compared and a citation to the information upon which the summary is based. The summary must be comprehensive and describe the problems to which the type of device is susceptible and the causes of such problems.

(s) United States agent means a person residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States whom a foreign establishment designates as its agent. This definition excludes mailboxes, answering machines or services, or other places where an individual acting as the foreign establishment's agent is not physically present.

(t) Wholesale distributor means any person (other than the manufacturer or the initial importer) who distributes a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes the final delivery or sale of the device to the ultimate consumer or user.

(u) Fiscal year means the FDA fiscal year, which runs from October 1 through September 30.

(v) FURLS means the Food and Drug Administration's Unified

Registration and Listing System,

(w) FDA premarket submission number means the number assigned by FDA to a premarket device submission, such as a Premarket Approval Application (PMA); Humanitarian Device Exemption (HDE); New Drug Application (NDA); Biologics License Application (BLA); de novo classification petition; or Premarket Notification (510(k)).

(x) Importer means, for purposes of this part, a company or individual in the United States that is an owner, consignee, or recipient, even if not the initial owner, consignee, or recipient, of the foreign establishment's device that is imported into the United States. An importer does not include the consumer or patient who ultimately purchases, receives, or uses the device, unless the foreign establishment ships the device directly to the consumer or patient.

(y) Person who imports or offers for import means, for purposes of this part, an agent, broker, or other entity, other than a carrier, that the foreign establishment uses to facilitate the import of its device into the United States.

(a) An owner or operator of an establishment not exempt under section 510(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or subpart D of this part who is engaged in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, assembly, or processing of a device intended for human use shall register and submit listing information for those devices in commercial distribution, except that registration and listing information may be submitted by the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company for all the domestic or foreign establishments under the control of one of these organizations when operations are conducted at more than one establishment and there exists joint ownership and control among all the establishments. The term “device” includes all in vitro diagnostic products and in vitro diagnostic biological products not subject to licensing under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act. An owner or operator of an establishment located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act shall register its name, places of business, and all establishments and list the devices whether or not the output of the establishments or any particular device so listed enters interstate commerce. The registration and listing requirements shall pertain to any person who is engaged in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, assembly, or processing of a device intended for human use, including any person who:

(1) Initiates or develops specifications for a device that is to be manufactured by a second party;

(2) Sterilizes or otherwise makes a device for or on behalf of a specifications developer or any other person;

(3) Repackages or relabels a device;

(4) Reprocesses a single use device that has previously been used on a patient;

(5) Acts as an initial importer as defined in § 807.3(g), except that initial importers may fulfill their listing obligation for any device for which they did not initiate or develop the specifications for the device or repackage or relabel the device by submitting the name and address of the manufacturer. Initial importers shall also be prepared to submit, when requested by FDA, the proprietary name, if any, and the common or usual name of each device for which they are the initial importer;

(6) Manufactures components or accessories that are ready to be used for any intended health-related purpose and are packaged or labeled for commercial distribution for such health-related purpose, e.g. blood filters, hemodialysis tubing, or devices which of necessity must be further processed by a licensed practitioner or other qualified person to meet the needs of a particular patient, e.g., a manufacturer of ophthalmic lens blanks.

(b) Registration or listing does not constitute an admission or agreement or determination that a product is a device within the meaning of section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(c) Registration and listing requirements shall not pertain to any person who acts as a wholesale distributor, as defined in § 807.3(t), and who does not manufacture, repackage, process, or relabel a device.

(d) Owners and operators of establishments or persons engaged in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products, as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are regulated under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act must register and list those human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products with the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research on Form FDA 3356 following the procedures set out in subpart B of part 1271 of this chapter, instead of the procedures for registration and listing contained in this part, except that the additional listing information requirements of § 807.26 remain applicable.

(e) Owners and operators of establishments that manufacture devices licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act as well as licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a licensed device must register and list following the procedures set out in part 607 of this chapter, instead of the procedures for registration and listing contained in this part.

(a) Owners or operators of establishments that are subject to the registration and listing requirements of this part must provide the following information to us using our electronic device registration and listing system, except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section:

(1) Initial establishment registration information as required by §§ 807.22(a) and 807.25;

(2) Updates to registration information as required by §§ 807.22(b) and 807.25;

(3) Initial device listing information as required by §§ 807.22(a), 807.25, and 807.28;

(4) Updates to device listing information as required by §§ 807.22(b), 807.25, and 807.28, including updates to reflect the discontinuance or resumption of the commercial distribution of a previously-listed device as specified at paragraphs (d) and (e) of § 807.28.

(b) If the information under § 807.21(a) cannot be submitted electronically, a waiver may be requested. Waivers will be granted only if use of electronic means is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver. To request a waiver, applicants must send a letter to the Office of Compliance, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. 2621, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, that includes the following information:

(1) The name and address of the device establishment(s) to be registered, a contact person for the owner or operator of the establishment, and the telephone number at which that person can be reached. If the establishment has already registered in the past, the letter should also include the owner or operator number, registration number, and any listing numbers previously assigned by FDA for devices manufactured at that establishment.

(2) Information about whether the company is an initial importer as defined in § 807.3(g) and, if so, whether it also conducts any other activities or operations relating to devices.

(3) A statement that use of the Internet is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver, and an explanation of why such use is not reasonable. The statement must be signed by the owner or operator of the establishment, or by a person employed by the owner or operator who is authorized to make the declaration on behalf of the owner or operator.

(c) Those owners or operators who have obtained a waiver from filing registration and listing information electronically should refer to § 807.34 for information on how to submit such information by postal mail.

(d) When additional device listing information (e.g., copies of labeling or advertisements) is requested by FDA as described at § 807.26(e), such information may be submitted by postal mail or electronically by email, but will not be submitted using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system.

(a) Initial registration and listing. An owner or operator of an establishment who has not previously entered into an operation described in § 807.20(a) shall register within 30 days after entering into such an operation and submit device listing information at that time.

(b) Registration and listing updates. Owners or operators shall review and update all of their establishment registration and device listing information that is on file at FDA, documenting any changes that were not previously reported as follows:

(1) Annual registration for each fiscal year is required for all establishments. Annual registration shall take place during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of each fiscal year;

(2) Updates to the registration information as described in § 807.25(b) shall be made within 30 days of any change to such information;

(3) Every fiscal year, during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31, owners or operators shall review and update all of their device listing information that is on file at FDA, reporting any changes or deletions to listings and any new listings that were not previously reported. The accuracy of all information on file must be confirmed each year regardless of whether any changes were made to the owner or operator's list of devices; and

(4) Changes to listing information may also be made at other times, such as when a device is introduced into commercial distribution, when a change is made to a previously-listed device, or when a previously-listed device is removed from commercial distribution.

(c) Failure to submit required information. Failure to submit any of the required information on time, as specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, will put the establishment in a “failed to register” or “failed to list” status as applicable. The establishment will not be considered active and the establishment registration and device listing information may not appear on the FDA Web site until such time as the owner or operator submits and FDA processes the required information.

(a) All owners or operators that are subject to the registration and listing requirements of this part shall provide such information to us by using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system, unless granted a waiver from electronic submission in accordance with § 807.21(b). Electronic submissions of registration and listing information must comply with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements in § 11.10(b), (c), and (e), and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30 of this chapter. Those owners or operators granted a waiver from electronic submission should refer to paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section and § 807.34 for instructions on how to submit device registration and listing information.

(b) Registration information required to be submitted includes: The name and mailing address of the device establishment; the Web site address of the device establishment, if any; the name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the owner or operator; the name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the establishment's official correspondent; and all trade names used by the establishment.

(c) Owners or operators who have been granted a waiver from electronic filing must submit the establishment registration information described in paragraph (b) of this section, except for the Web site and email address information, in paper form using the procedures set forth in § 807.34.

(d) Each owner or operator is required to maintain a listing of all officers, directors, and partners for each establishment registered by the owner or operator and to furnish this information to FDA upon request.

(e) For each establishment, an official correspondent must be designated by the owner or operator to serve as a point of contact with FDA on matters relating to the registration of device establishments and the listing of device products. Each owner or operator shall also provide FDA with the name of a contact person at the owner or operator's offices who will be responsible for identifying the official correspondent for each establishment. The owner or operator contact person will be the official correspondent in the event no one else has been properly designated. The official correspondent is responsible for:

(1) Providing FDA with all required registration and listing information electronically unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 807.21(b);

(2) Receiving all correspondence from FDA concerning registration and listing;

(3) Supplying, when requested by FDA, the names of all officers, directors, and partners; and

(4) Receiving communications from FDA by email, or by postal mail if the owner or operator has been granted a waiver from the requirement to file registration and listing information electronically.

(f) The designation of an official correspondent does not in any manner affect the liability of the owner or operator of the establishment or any other individual under section 301(p) or any other provision of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(g) Device listing information must be submitted to FDA electronically unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 807.21(b). Owners or operators who have been granted a waiver must submit the required device listing information, including information required by this paragraph, § 807.28, and any listing information requested by FDA under § 807.26(e), in paper form using the procedures set forth in § 807.34. The information required for each device listed includes:

(1) The current registration number and name of each establishment under the ownership and control of the owner or operator where the device is manufactured, repackaged, relabeled, or otherwise processed, or where specifications are developed.

(2) The product code for each device that is exempt from premarket notification and approval or which was in commercial distribution prior to May 28, 1976.

(3) The proprietary or brand name(s) under which each device is marketed.

(4) The FDA-assigned premarket submission number of the approved application, cleared premarket notification, granted de novo classification petition, or approved humanitarian device exemption for each device listed that is subject to sections 505, 510(k), 513(f)(2), 515, or 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which includes devices that are not exempt from premarket notification and approval.

(5) Each activity or process that is conducted on or done to the device at each establishment, such as manufacturing, repacking, relabeling, developing specifications, remanufacturing, single-use device reprocessing, contract manufacturing, contract sterilizing, or manufacturing for export only.

(a) Each owner or operator shall maintain a historical file containing the labeling and advertisements in use on the date of initial listing, and in use after October 10, 1978, but before the date of initial listing, as follows:

(1) For each device subject to section 514 or 515 of the act that is not a restricted device, a copy of all labeling for the device;

(2) For each restricted device, a copy of all labeling and advertisements for the device;

(3) For each device that is neither restricted nor subject to section 514 or 515 of the act, a copy of all labels, package inserts, and a representative sampling of any other labeling.

(b) In addition to the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, each owner or operator shall maintain in the historical file any labeling or advertisements in which a material change has been made anytime after initial listing.

(c) Each owner or operator may discard labeling and advertisements from the historical file 3 years after the date of the last shipment of a discontinued device by an owner or operator.

(d) Location of the file:

(1) Currently existing systems for maintenance of labeling and advertising may be used for the purpose of maintaining the historical file as long as the information included in the systems fulfills the requirements of this section, but only if the labeling and advertisements are retrievable in a timely manner.

(2) The contents of the historical file may be physically located in more than one place in the establishment or in more than one establishment provided there exists joint ownership and control among all the establishments maintaining the historical file. If no joint ownership and control exists, the registered establishment must provide the Food and Drug Administration with a letter authorizing the establishment outside its control to maintain the historical file.

(3) A copy of the certification and disclosure statements as required by part 54 of this chapter shall be retained and physically located at the establishment maintaining the historical file.

(e) Each owner or operator shall be prepared to submit to the Food and Drug Administration, only upon specific request, the following information:

(1) For a device subject to section 514 or 515 of the act that is not a restricted device, a copy of all labeling for the device.

(2) For a device that is a restricted device, a copy of all labeling for the device, a representative sampling of advertisements for the device, and for good cause, a copy of all advertisements for a particular device. A request for all advertisements will, where feasible, be accompanied by an explanation of the basis for such request.

(3) For a device that is neither a restricted device, nor subject to section 514 of 515 of the act, the label and package insert for the device and a representative sampling of any other labeling for the device.

(4) For a particular device, a statement of the basis upon which the registrant has determined that the device is not subject to section 514 or 515 of the act.

(5) For a particular device, a statement of the basis upon which the registrant has determined the device is not a restricted device.

(6) For a particular device, a statement of the basis for determining that the product is a device rather than a drug.

(7) For a device that the owner or operator has manufactured for distribution under a label other than its own, the names of all distributors for whom it has been manufactured.

(f) Labeling, advertisements, and other information to be submitted upon request in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section may be submitted by postal mail or electronically by email, but will not be submitted using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system. Electronic submissions of such information must comply with part 11 of this chapter, except for the requirements in § 11.10 (a), (c) through (h), and (k), and the corresponding requirements in § 11.30 of this chapter. The information provided in electronic format must be in a form that we can process, review, and archive.

(a) Updating of device listing information is required if an additional establishment begins to engage in any of the activities described in § 807.3(d) with respect to a listed device, such as manufacturing, developing specifications, repackaging, relabeling, or otherwise processing the device. Updating of the listing is also required if an establishment begins performing another activity on or to the device, or ceases to perform an activity on or to the device that had previously been identified on the device listing.

(b) An owner or operator shall create a new device listing using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system:

(1) If introducing into commercial distribution an exempt device identified with a product code that is not currently listed by the owner or operator; or

(2) If introducing into commercial distribution a non-exempt device with an FDA premarket submission number that is not currently listed by the owner or operator.

(c) All device listings for foreign establishments must be submitted before the device may be imported or offered for import into the United States.

(d) An owner or operator who discontinues commercial distribution of a device shall discontinue the device listing using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system. A device listing is considered discontinued if:

(1) All devices under an exempt product code have been discontinued or

(2) All devices associated with an FDA premarket submission number have been discontinued.

(e) If commercial distribution of a discontinued device is resumed, the owner or operator must reactivate the previously-discontinued listing using the electronic device registration and listing system. Any changes to the listing information for the product that is the subject of the listing such as a new establishment, new activity, or new proprietary name must be made using the electronic device registration and listing system at the time the listing is reactivated.

(f) FDA will assign one listing number for all devices exempt from premarket notification requirements under a single product code. For products not exempt from premarket notification requirements, a single listing number will be assigned by FDA for each FDA premarket submission number.

(a) For initial registration and listing, owners or operators who have been granted a waiver from electronic filing using the procedures set forth in § 807.21(b) must send a letter containing all of the registration and listing information described in §§ 807.22, 807.25, (and § 807.26 when such information is requested by FDA), at the times described in § 807.22, to: The Office of Compliance, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. 3521, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.

(b) As specified in § 807.22(b)(1) and (b)(3), all owners or operators shall update their establishment registration and device listings annually during the period beginning on October 1 and ending on December 31 of each fiscal year.

(c) Failure to submit any of the required information on time, as specified in § 807.22(a) and (b), will put the establishment in a “failed to register” or “failed to list” status as applicable.

The establishment will not be considered active and the establishment registration and device listing information may not appear on the FDA Web site until the required information is submitted to and processed by FDA.

(a) The Food and Drug Administration will assign each device establishment a registration number after verifying the initial establishment registration information that has been submitted. The owner or operator of the establishment will also be assigned an identifying number. Both numbers will be sent to the official correspondent by email, or by postal mail if the owner or operator has been granted a waiver from the requirement to file registration and listing information electronically.

(b) Owners or operators of device establishments who also manufacture or process biological products (including devices licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act) or drug products at the same establishment must also register and list those products under part 607 or part 207 of this chapter, as appropriate. Registration and listing for human blood and blood products, devices licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, and licensed biological products used in the manufacture of a device licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, are subject to part 607 of this chapter; registration and listing for all other drug products (including other biological products that are also regulated as drug products) are subject to part 207 of this chapter.

(c) Although establishment registration and device listing are required to engage in the device activities described in § 807.20, validation of registration and the assignment of a device listing number in itself does not establish that the holder of the registration is legally qualified to deal in such devices and does not represent a determination by the Food and Drug Administration as to the status of any device.

(a) Establishment registration and device listing information is available for public inspection in accordance with section 510(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and will be posted on the FDA Web site, with the exception of the information identified in paragraph (b) of this section. Requests for information by persons who do not have access to the Internet should be directed to the Office of Compliance, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. 3521, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. In addition, there will be available for inspection at each of the Food and Drug Administration district offices the same information for firms within the geographical area of such district offices. Upon request, verification of a registration number or location of a registered establishment will be provided.

(b) The following listing information will not be available for public inspection or posted on the FDA Web site:

(1) For contract manufacturers, contract sterilizers, and private label manufacturers, the proprietary or brand name(s) under which a device is marketed and the FDA-assigned premarket submission number, if this information would reveal a confidential business relationship;

(2) FDA-assigned listing numbers.

Registration of a device establishment or assignment of a registration number does not in any way denote approval of the establishment or its products. Any representation that creates an impression of official approval because of registration or possession of a registration number is misleading and constitutes misbranding.

(a) Any establishment within any foreign country engaged in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing of a device that is imported or offered for import into the United States shall register such establishment and list such devices using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system in conformance with the procedures in this section, § 807.41, and subpart B of this part. The official correspondent for the foreign establishment shall facilitate communication between the foreign establishment's management and representatives of FDA for matters relating to the registration of device establishments and the listing of device products.

(b) Each foreign establishment required to register under paragraph (a) of this section shall submit the name, address, and phone number of its United States agent as part of its initial and updated registration information in accordance with subpart B of this part. Each foreign establishment shall designate only one United States agent and may designate the United States agent to act as its official correspondent.

(1) The United States agent shall reside or maintain a place of business in the United States.

(2) Upon request from FDA, the United States agent shall assist FDA in communications with the foreign establishment, respond to questions concerning the foreign establishment's products that are imported or offered for import into the United States, and assist FDA in scheduling inspections of the foreign establishment. If the agency is unable to contact the foreign establishment directly or expeditiously, FDA may provide information or documents to the United States agent, and such an action shall be considered to be equivalent to providing the same information or documents to the foreign establishment.

(3) The foreign establishment or the United States agent shall report changes in the United States agent's name, address, or phone number to FDA within 10-business days of the change.

(c) No device may be imported or offered for import into the United States unless it is the subject of a device listing as required under subpart B of this part and is manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed at a registered foreign establishment; however, this restriction does not apply to devices imported or offered for import under the investigational use provisions of part 812 of this chapter.

(d) The device establishment registration and device listing information shall be in the English language.

(a) Upon initial registration, annually, and at the time of any changes, each foreign establishment required to register and list as provided in § 807.40(a) must, using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system, submit the name, address, telephone and fax numbers, email address, and registration number, if any has been assigned, of any importer (defined in § 807.3(x)) of the establishment's devices that is known to the foreign establishment. The foreign establishment must also specify which of the establishment's listed products each importer receives from the foreign establishment.

(b) Upon initial registration, annually, and at the time of any changes, each foreign establishment required to register and list as provided in § 807.40(a) must, using the FDA electronic device registration and listing system, submit the name, address, telephone and fax numbers, email address, and registration number, if any has been assigned, of each person who imports or offers for import the establishment's devices into the United States. The term “person who imports or offers for import,” which is defined in § 807.3(y), includes agents, brokers, or other parties used by the foreign establishment to facilitate the import of its device into the United States.

(c) For each individual or organization identified by the foreign establishment under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the foreign establishment must submit to FDA electronically the current FDA premarket submission number and any other identifying information that is known to the establishment for each device being imported or offered for import by the named individuals or organizations.

The following classes of persons are exempt from registration in accordance with § 807.20 under the provisions of section 510(g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of the act, or because the Commissioner of Food and Drugs has found, under section 510(g)(5) of the act, that such registration is not necessary for the protection of the public health. The exemptions in paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (i) of this section are limited to those classes of persons located in any State as defined in section 201(a)(1) of the act.

(a) A manufacturer of raw materials or components to be used in the manufacture or assembly of a device who would otherwise not be required to register under the provisions of this part.

(b) A manufacturer of devices to be used solely for veterinary purposes.

(c) A manufacturer of general purpose articles such as chemical reagents or laboratory equipment whose uses are generally known by persons trained in their use and which are not labeled or promoted for medical uses.

(d) Licensed practitioners, including physicians, dentists, and optometrists, who manufacture or otherwise alter devices solely for use in their practice.

(e) Pharmacies, surgical supply outlets, or other similar retail establishments making final delivery or sale to the ultimate user. This exemption also applies to a pharmacy or other similar retail establishment that purchases a device for subsequent distribution under its own name, e.g., a properly labeled health aid such as an elastic bandage or crutch, indicating “distributed by” or “manufactured for” followed by the name of the pharmacy.

(f) Persons who manufacture, prepare, propagate, compound, or process devices solely for use in research, teaching, or analysis and do not introduce such devices into commercial distribution.

(g) [Reserved]

(h) Carriers by reason of their receipt, carriage, holding or delivery of devices in the usual course of business as carriers.

(i) Persons who dispense devices to the ultimate consumer or whose major responsibility is to render a service necessary to provide the consumer (i.e., patient, physician, layman, etc.) with a device or the benefits to be derived from the use of a device; for example, a hearing aid dispenser, optician, clinical laboratory, assembler of diagnostic x-ray systems, and personnel from a hospital, clinic, dental laboratory, orthotic or prosthetic retail facility, whose primary responsibility to the ultimate consumer is to dispense or provide a service through the use of a previously manufactured device.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each person who is required to register his establishment pursuant to § 807.20 must submit a premarket notification submission to the Food and Drug Administration at least 90 days before he proposes to begin the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution of a device intended for human use which meets any of the following criteria:

(1) The device is being introduced into commercial distribution for the first time; that is, the device is not of the same type as, or is not substantially equivalent to, (i) a device in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or (ii) a device introduced for commercial distribution after May 28, 1976, that has subsequently been reclassified into class I or II.

(2) The device is being introduced into commercial distribution for the first time by a person required to register, whether or not the device meets the criteria in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(3) The device is one that the person currently has in commercial distribution or is reintroducing into commercial distribution, but that is about to be significantly changed or modified in design, components, method of manufacture, or intended use. The following constitute significant changes or modifications that require a premarket notification:

(i) A change or modification in the device that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, e.g., a significant change or modification in design, material, chemical composition, energy source, or manufacturing process.

(ii) A major change or modification in the intended use of the device.

(b)(1) A premarket notification under this subpart is not required for a device for which a premarket approval application under section 515 of the act, or for which a petition to reclassify under section 513(f)(2) of the act, is pending before the Food and Drug Administration.

(2) The appropriate FDA Center Director may determine that the submission and grant of a written request for an exception or alternative under § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter satisfies the requirement in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.

(c) In addition to complying with the requirements of this part, owners or operators of device establishments that manufacture radiation-emitting electronic products, as defined in § 1000.3 of this chapter, shall comply with the reporting requirements of part 1002 of this chapter.

(a) A custom device is exempt from premarket notification requirements of this subpart if the device is within the meaning of section 520(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(1) It is intended for use by a patient named in the order of the physician or dentist (or other specially qualified person); or

(2) It is intended solely for use by a physician or dentist (or other specially qualified person) and is not generally available to, or generally used by, other physicians or dentists (or other specially qualified persons).

(b) A distributor who places a device into commercial distribution for the first time under his own name and a repackager who places his own name on a device and does not change any other labeling or otherwise affect the device shall be exempted from the premarket notification requirements of this subpart if:

(1) The device was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976; or

(2) A premarket notification submission was filed by another person.

Each premarket notification submission shall contain the following information:

(a) The device name, including both the trade or proprietary name and the common or usual name or classification name of the device.

(b) The establishment registration number, if applicable, of the owner or operator submitting the premarket notification submission.

(c) The class in which the device has been put under section 513 of the act and, if known, its appropriate panel; or, if the owner or operator determines that the device has not been classified under such section, a statement of that determination and the basis for the person's determination that the device is not so classified.

(d) Action taken by the person required to register to comply with the requirements of the act under section 514 for performance standards.

(e) Proposed labels, labeling, and advertisements sufficient to describe the device, its intended use, and the directions for its use. Where applicable, photographs or engineering drawings should be supplied.

(f) A statement indicating the device is similar to and/or different from other products of comparable type in commercial distribution, accompanied by data to support the statement. This information may include an identification of similar products, materials, design considerations, energy expected to be used or delivered by the device, and a description of the operational principles of the device.

(g) Where a person required to register intends to introduce into commercial distribution a device that has undergone a significant change or modification that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, or the device is to be marketed for a new or different indication for use, the premarket notification submission must include appropriate supporting data to show that the manufacturer has considered what consequences and effects the change or modification or new use might have on the safety and effectiveness of the device.

(h) A 510(k) summary as described in § 807.92 or a 510(k) statement as described in § 807.93.

(i) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both, as required by part 54 of this chapter.

(j) For a submission supported by clinical data:

(1) If the data are from clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with applicable requirements in the protection of human subjects regulations in part 50 of this chapter, the institutional review boards regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and the investigational device exemptions regulations in part 812 of this chapter, or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.

(2) If the data are from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States, the requirements under § 812.28 of this chapter apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) of the chapter or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected.

(k) For submissions claiming substantial equivalence to a device which has been classified into class III under section 513(b) of the act:

(1) Which was introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution before December 1, 1990; and

(2) For which no final regulation requiring premarket approval has been issued under section 515(b) of the act, a summary of the types of safety and effectiveness problems associated with the type of devices being compared and a citation to the information upon which the summary is based (class III summary). The 510(k) submitter shall also certify that a reasonable search of all information known or otherwise available about the class III device and other similar legally marketed devices has been conducted (class III certification), as described in § 807.94. This information does not refer to information that already has been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) under section 519 of the act. FDA may require the submission of the adverse safety and effectiveness data described in the class III summary or citation.

(l) A statement that the submitter believes, to the best of his or her knowledge, that all data and information submitted in the premarket notification are truthful and accurate and that no material fact has been omitted.

(m) Any additional information regarding the device requested by the Commissioner that is necessary for the Commissioner to make a finding as to whether or not the device is substantially equivalent to a device in commercial distribution. A request for additional information will advise the owner or operator that there is insufficient information contained in the original premarket notification submission for the Commissioner to make this determination and that the owner or operator may either submit the requested data or a new premarket notification containing the requested information at least 90 days before the owner or operator intends to market the device, or submit a premarket approval application in accordance with section 515 of the act. If the additional information is not submitted within 30 days following the date of the request, the Commissioner will consider the premarket notification to be withdrawn.

Each premarket notification submission pursuant to this part shall be submitted in accordance with this section. Each submission shall:

(a)(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, be addressed to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.

(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, be addressed to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm; or for devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, be addressed to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. Information about devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research is available at https://www.fda.gov/BiologicsBloodVaccines/BloodBloodProducts/ApprovedProducts/default.htm.

(3) All inquiries regarding a premarket notification submission should be sent to the address in this section or one of the current addresses displayed on the Food and Drug Administration's website.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Be submitted as a single version in electronic format.

(d) Be submitted separately for each product the manufacturer intends to market.

(e) Designated “510(k) Notification” in the cover letter.

(a) A 510(k) summary shall be in sufficient detail to provide an understanding of the basis for a determination of substantial equivalence. FDA will accept summaries as well as amendments thereto until such time as FDA issues a determination of substantial equivalence. All 510(k) summaries shall contain the following information:

(1) The submitter's name, address, telephone number, a contact person, and the date the summary was prepared;

(2) The name of the device, including the trade or proprietary name if applicable, the common or usual name, and the classification name, if known;

(3) An identification of the legally marketed device to which the submitter claims equivalence. A legally marketed device to which a new device may be compared for a determination regarding substantial equivalence is a device that was legally marketed prior to May 28, 1976, or a device which has been reclassified from class III to class II or I (the predicate), or a device which has been found to be substantially equivalent through the 510(k) premarket notification process;

(4) A description of the device that is the subject of the premarket notification submission, such as might be found in the labeling or promotional material for the device, including an explanation of how the device functions, the scientific concepts that form the basis for the device, and the significant physical and performance characteristics of the device, such as device design, material used, and physical properties;

(5) A statement of the intended use of the device that is the subject of the premarket notification submission, including a general description of the diseases or conditions that the device will diagnose, treat, prevent, cure, or mitigate, including a description, where appropriate, of the patient population for which the device is intended. If the indication statements are different from those of the legally marketed device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the 510(k) summary shall contain an explanation as to why the differences are not critical to the intended therapeutic, diagnostic, prosthetic, or surgical use of the device, and why the differences do not affect the safety and effectiveness of the device when used as labeled; and

(6) If the device has the same technological characteristics (i.e., design, material, chemical composition, energy source) as the predicate device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a summary of the technological characteristics of the new device in comparison to those of the predicate device. If the device has different technological characteristics from the predicate device, a summary of how the technological characteristics of the device compare to a legally marketed device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.

(b) 510(k) summaries for those premarket submissions in which a determination of substantial equivalence is also based on an assessment of performance data shall contain the following information:

(1) A brief discussion of the nonclinical tests submitted, referenced, or relied on in the premarket notification submission for a determination of substantial equivalence;

(2) A brief discussion of the clinical tests submitted, referenced, or relied on in the premarket notification submission for a determination of substantial equivalence. This discussion shall include, where applicable, a description of the subjects upon whom the device was tested, a discussion of the safety or effectiveness data obtained from the testing, with specific reference to adverse effects and complications, and any other information from the clinical testing relevant to a determination of substantial equivalence; and

(3) The conclusions drawn from the nonclinical and clinical tests that demonstrate that the device is as safe, as effective, and performs as well as or better than the legally marketed device identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.

(c) The summary should be in a separate section of the submission, beginning on a new page and ending on a page not shared with any other section of the premarket notification submission, and should be clearly identified as a “510(k) summary.”

(d) Any other information reasonably deemed necessary by the agency.

(a)(1) A 510(k) statement submitted as part of a premarket notification shall state as follows:

(2) The statement in paragraph (a)(1) of this section should be signed by the certifier, made on a separate page of the premarket notification submission, and clearly identified as “510(k) statement.”

(b) All requests for information included in paragraph (a) of this section shall be made in writing to the certifier, whose name will be published by FDA on the list of premarket notification submissions for which substantial equivalence determinations have been made.

(c) The information provided to requestors will be a duplicate of the premarket notification submission, including any adverse information, but excluding all patient identifiers, and trade secret and confidential commercial information as defined in § 20.61 of this chapter.

(a) A class III certification submitted as part of a premarket notification shall state as follows:

(b) The statement in paragraph (a) of this section should be signed by the certifier, clearly identified as “class III certification,” and included at the beginning of the section of the premarket notification submission that sets forth the class III summary.

(a) The Food and Drug Administration will disclose publicly whether there exists a premarket notification submission under this part:

(1) Where the device is on the market, i.e., introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution;

(2) Where the person submitting the premarket notification submission has disclosed, through advertising or any other manner, his intent to market the device to scientists, market analysts, exporters, or other individuals who are not employees of, or paid consultants to, the establishment and who are not in an advertising or law firm pursuant to commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy; or

(3) Where the device is not on the market and the intent to market the device has not been so disclosed, except where the submission is subject to an exception under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

(b) The Food and Drug Administration will not disclose publicly the existence of a premarket notification submission for a device that is not on the market and where the intent to market the device has not been disclosed for 90 days from the date of receipt of the submission, if:

(1) The person submitting the premarket notification submission requests in the submission that the Food and Drug Administration hold as confidential commercial information the intent to market the device and submits a certification to the Commissioner:

(i) That the person considers his intent to market the device to be confidential commercial information;

(ii) That neither the person nor, to the best of his knowledge, anyone else, has disclosed through advertising or any other manner, his intent to market the device to scientists, market analysts, exporters, or other individuals, except employees of, or paid consultants to, the establishment or individuals in an advertising or law firm pursuant to commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy;

(iii) That the person will immediately notify the Food and Drug Administration if he discloses the intent to market the device to anyone, except employees of, or paid consultants to, the establishment or individuals in an advertising or law firm pursuant to commercial arrangements with appropriate safeguards for secrecy;

(iv) That the person has taken precautions to protect the confidentiality of the intent to market the device; and

(v) That the person understands that the submission to the government of false information is prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 21 U.S.C. 331(q); and

(2) The Commissioner agrees that the intent to market the device is confidential commercial information.

(c) Where the Commissioner determines that the person has complied with the procedures described in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a device that is not on the market and where the intent to market the device has not been disclosed, and the Commissioner agrees that the intent to market the device is confidential commercial information, the Commissioner will not disclose the existence of the submission for 90 days from the date of its receipt by the agency. In addition, the Commissioner will continue not to disclose the existence of such a submission for the device for an additional time when any of the following occurs:

(1) The Commissioner requests in writing additional information regarding the device pursuant to § 807.87(h), in which case the Commissioner will not disclose the existence of the submission until 90 days after the Food and Drug Administration's receipt of a complete premarket notification submission;

(2) The Commissioner determines that the device intended to be introduced is a class III device and cannot be marketed without premarket approval or reclassification, in which case the Commissioner will not disclose the existence of the submission unless a petition for reclassification is submitted under section 513(f)(2) of the act and its existence can be disclosed under § 860.5(d) of this chapter; or

(d) FDA will make a 510(k) summary of the safety and effectiveness data available to the public within 30 days of the issuance of a determination that the device is substantially equivalent to another device. Accordingly, even when a 510(k) submitter has complied with the conditions set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, confidentiality for a premarket notification submission cannot be granted beyond 30 days after FDA issues a determination of equivalency.

(e) Data or information submitted with, or incorporated by reference in, a premarket notification submission (other than safety and effectiveness data that have not been disclosed to the public) shall be available for disclosure by the Food and Drug Administration when the intent to market the device is no longer confidential in accordance with this section, unless exempt from public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter. Upon final classification, data and information relating to safety and effectiveness of a device classified in class I (general controls) or class II (performance standards) shall be available for public disclosure. Data and information relating to safety and effectiveness of a device classified in class III (premarket approval) that have not been released to the public shall be retained as confidential unless such data and information become available for release to the public under § 860.5(d) or other provisions of this chapter.

Submission of a premarket notification in accordance with this subpart, and a subsequent determination by the Commissioner that the device intended for introduction into commercial distribution is substantially equivalent to a device in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or is substantially equivalent to a device introduced into commercial distribution after May 28, 1976, that has subsequently been reclassified into class I or II, does not in any way denote official approval of the device. Any representation that creates an impression of official approval of a device because of complying with the premarket notification regulations is misleading and constitutes misbranding.

(a) After review of a premarket notification, FDA will:

(1) Issue an order declaring the device to be substantially equivalent to a legally marketed predicate device;

(2) Issue an order declaring the device to be not substantially equivalent to any legally marketed predicate device;

(3) Request additional information; or

(4) Withhold the decision until a certification or disclosure statement is submitted to FDA under part 54 of this chapter.

(5) Advise the applicant that the premarket notification is not required. Until the applicant receives an order declaring a device substantially equivalent, the applicant may not proceed to market the device.

(b) FDA will determine that a device is substantially equivalent to a predicate device using the following criteria:

(1) The device has the same intended use as the predicate device; and

(2) The device:

(i) Has the same technological characteristics as the predicate device; or

(ii)(A) Has different technological characteristics, such as a significant change in the materials, design, energy source, or other features of the device from those of the predicate device;

(B) The data submitted establishes that the device is substantially equivalent to the predicate device and contains information, including clinical data if deemed necessary by the Commissioner, that demonstrates that the device is as safe and as effective as a legally marketed device; and

(C) Does not raise different questions of safety and effectiveness than the predicate device.

(3) The predicate device has not been removed from the market at the initiative of the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or has not been determined to be misbranded or adulterated by a judicial order.

(a) This part prescribes procedures for the submission, review, and approval of applications for exemption from Federal preemption of State and local requirements applicable to medical devices under section 521 of the act.

(b) Section 521(a) of the act contains special provisions governing the regulation of devices by States and localities. That section prescribes a general rule that after May 28, 1976, no State or political subdivision of a State may establish or continue in effect any requirement with respect to a medical device intended for human use having the force and effect of law (whether established by statute, ordinance, regulation, or court decision), which is different from, or in addition to, any requirement applicable to such device under any provision of the act and which relates to the safety or effectiveness of the device or to any other matter included in a requirement applicable to the device under the act.

(c) Section 521(b) of the act contains a provision whereby the Commissioner of Food and Drugs may, upon application by a State or political subdivision, allow imposition of a requirement which is different from, or in addition to, any requirement applicable under the act to the device (and which is thereby preempted) by promulgating a regulation in accordance with this part exempting the State or local requirement from preemption. The granting of an exemption does not affect the applicability to the device of any requirements under the act. The Commissioner may promulgate an exemption regulation for the preempted requirement if he makes either of the following findings:

(1) That the requirement is more stringent than a requirement under the act applicable to the device; or

(2) That the requirement is required by compelling local conditions and compliance with the requirement would not cause the device to be in violation of any applicable requirement under the act.

(d) State or local requirements are preempted only when the Food and Drug Administration has established specific counterpart regulations or there are other specific requirements applicable to a particular device under the act, thereby making any existing divergent State or local requirements applicable to the device different from, or in addition to, the specific Food and Drug Administration requirements. There are other State or local requirements that affect devices that are not preempted by section 521(a) of the act because they are not “requirements applicable to a device” within the meaning of section 521(a) of the act. The following are examples of State or local requirements that are not regarded as preempted by section 521 of the act:

(1) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements of general applicability where the purpose of the requirement relates either to other products in addition to devices (e.g., requirements such as general electrical codes, and the Uniform Commercial Code (warranty of fitness)), or to unfair trade practices in which the requirements are not limited to devices.

(2) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements that are equal to, or substantially identical to, requirements imposed by or under the act.

(3) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local permits, licensing, registration, certification, or other requirements relating to the approval or sanction of the practice of medicine, dentistry, optometry, pharmacy, nursing, podiatry, or any other of the healing arts or allied medical sciences or related professions or occupations that administer, dispense, or sell devices. However, regulations issued under section 520(e) or (g) of the act may impose restrictions on the sale, distribution, or use of a device beyond those prescribed in State or local requirements. If there is a conflict between such restrictions and State or local requirements, the Federal regulations shall prevail.

(4) Section 521(a) does not preempt specifications in contracts entered into by States or localities for procurement of devices.

(5) Section 521(a) does not preempt criteria for payment of State or local obligations under Medicaid and similar Federal, State or local health-care programs.

(6)(i) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements respecting general enforcement, e.g., requirements that State inspection be permitted of factory records concerning all devices, registration, and licensing requirements for manufacturers and others, and prohibition of manufacture of devices in unlicensed establishments. However, Federal regulations issued under sections 519 and 520(f) of the act may impose requirements for records and reports and good manufacturing practices beyond those prescribed in State or local requirements. If there is a conflict between such regulations and State or local requirements, the Federal regulations shall prevail.

(ii) Generally, section 521(a) does not preempt a State or local requirement prohibiting the manufacture of adulterated or misbranded devices. Where, however, such a prohibition has the effect of establishing a substantive requirement for a specific device, e.g., a specific labeling requirement, then the prohibition will be preempted if the requirement is different from, or in addition to, a Federal requirement established under the act. In determining whether such a requirement is preempted, the determinative factor is how the requirement is interpreted and enforced by the State or local government and not the literal language of the statute, which may be identical to a provision in the act.

(7) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local provisions respecting delegations of authority and related administrative matters relating to devices.

(8) Section 521(a) does not preempt a State or local requirement whose sole purpose is raising revenue or charging fees for services, registration, or regulatory programs.

(9) Section 521(a) does not preempt State or local requirements of the types that have been developed under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 note), as amended, Subchapter C - Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968), and other Federal statutes, until such time as the Food and Drug Administration issues specific requirements under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applicable to these types of devices.

(10) Part 820 of this chapter (21 CFR part 820) (CGMP requirements) does not preempt remedies created by States or Territories of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(e) It is the responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration, subject to review by Federal courts, to determine whether a State or local requirement is equal to, or substantially identical to, requirements imposed by or under the act, or is different from, or in addition to, such requirements, in accordance with the procedures provided by this part. However, it is the responsibility of States and political subdivisions to determine initially whether to seek exemptions from preemption. Any State or political subdivision whose requirements relating to devices are preempted by section 521(a) may petition the Commissioner of Food and Drugs for exemption from preemption, in accordance with the procedures provided by this part.

(f) The Federal requirement with respect to a device applies whether or not a corresponding State or local requirement is preempted or exempted from preemption. As a result, if a State or local requirement that the Food and Drug Administration has exempted from preemption is not as broad in its application as the Federal requirement, the Federal requirement applies to all circumstances not covered by the State or local requirement.

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(b) Compelling local conditions includes any factors, considerations, or circumstances prevailing in, or characteristic of, the geographic area or population of the State or political subdivision that justify exemption from preemption.

(c) More stringent refers to a requirement of greater restrictiveness or one that is expected to afford to those who may be exposed to a risk of injury from a device a higher degree of protection than is afforded by a requirement applicable to the device under the act.

(d) Political subdivision or locality means any lawfully established local governmental unit within a State which unit has the authority to establish or continue in effect any requirement having the force and effect of law with respect to a device intended for human use.

(e) State means a State, American Samoa, the Canal Zone, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, Johnston Island, Kingman Reef, Midway Island, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Virgin Islands, and Wake Island.

(f) Substantially identical to refers to the fact that a State or local requirement does not significantly differ in effect from a Federal requirement.

(a) Any State, political subdivision, or other interested person may request an advisory opinion from the Commissioner with respect to any general matter concerning preemption of State or local device requirements or with respect to whether the Food and Drug Administration regards particular State or local requirements, or proposed requirements, as preempted.

(1) Such an advisory opinion may be requested and may be granted in accordance with § 10.85 of this chapter.

(2) The Food and Drug Administration, in its discretion and after consultation with the State or political subdivision, may treat a request by a State or political subdivision for an advisory opinion as an application for exemption from preemption under § 808.20.

(b) The Commissioner may issue an advisory opinion relating to a State or local requirement on his own initiative when he makes one of the following determinations:

(1) A requirement with respect to a device for which an application for exemption from preemption has been submitted under § 808.20 is not preempted by section 521(a) of the act because it is: (i) Equal to or substantially identical to a requirement under the act applicable to the device, or (ii) is not a requirement within the meaning of section 521 of the act and therefore is not preempted;

(2) A proposed State or local requirement with respect to a device is not eligible for exemption from preemption because the State or local requirement has not been issued in final form. In such a case, the advisory opinion may indicate whether the proposed requirement would be preempted and, if it would be preempted, whether the Food and Drug Administration would propose to grant an exemption from preemption;

(3) Issuance of such an advisory opinion is in the public interest.

(a) Any State or political subdivision may apply to the Food and Drug Administration for an exemption from preemption for any requirement that it has enacted and that is preempted. An exemption may only be granted for a requirement that has been enacted, promulgated, or issued in final form by the authorized body or official of the State or political subdivision so as to have the force and effect of law. However, an application for exemption may be submitted before the effective date of the requirement.

(b) An application for exemption shall be in the form of a letter to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and shall be signed by an individual who is authorized to request the exemption on behalf of the State or political subdivision. An original and two copies of the letter and any accompanying material, as well as any subsequent reports or correspondence concerning an application, shall be submitted to the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852. The outside wrapper of any application, report, or correspondence should indicate that it concerns an application for exemption from preemption of device requirements.

(c) For each requirement for which an exemption is sought, the application shall include the following information to the fullest extent possible, or an explanation of why such information has not been included:

(1) Identification and a current copy of any statute, rule, regulation, or ordinance of the State or political subdivision considered by the State or political subdivision to be a requirement which is preempted, with a reference to the date of enactment, promulgation, or issuance in final form. The application shall also include, where available, copies of any legislative history or background materials pertinent to enactment, promulgation, or issuance of the requirement, including hearing reports or studies concerning development or consideration of the requirement. If the requirement has been subject to any judicial or administrative interpretations, the State or political subdivision shall furnish copies of such judicial or administrative interpretations.

(2) A comparison of the requirement of the State or political subdivision and any applicable Federal requirements to show similarities and differences.

(3) Information on the nature of the problem addressed by the requirement of the State or political subdivision.

(4) Identification of which (or both) of the following bases is relied upon for seeking an exemption from preemption:

(i) The requirement is more stringent than a requirement applicable to a device under the act. If the State or political subdivision relies upon this basis for exemption from preemption, the application shall include information, data, or material showing how and why the requirement of the State or political subdivision is more stringent than requirements under the act.

(ii) The requirement is required by compelling local conditions, and compliance with the requirement would not cause the device to be in violation of any applicable requirement under the act. If the State or political subdivision relies upon this basis for exemption from preemption, the application shall include information, data, or material showing why compliance with the requirement of the State or political subdivision would not cause a device to be in violation of any applicable requirement under the act and why the requirement is required by compelling local conditions. The application shall also explain in detail the compelling local conditions that justify the requirement.

(5) The title of the chief administrative or legal officers of that State or local agency that has primary responsibility for administration of the requirement.

(6) When requested by the Food and Drug Administration, any records concerning administration of any requirement which is the subject of an exemption or an application for an exemption from preemption.

(7) Information on how the public health may be benefitted and how interstate commerce may be affected, if an exemption is granted.

(8) Any other pertinent information respecting the requirement voluntarily submitted by the applicant.

(d) If litigation regarding applicability of the requirement is pending, the State or political subdivision may so indicate in its application and request expedited action on such application.

(a) Upon receipt of an application for an exemption from preemption submitted in accordance with § 808.20, the Commissioner shall notify the State or political subdivision of the date of such receipt.

(b) If the Commissioner finds that an application does not meet the requirements of § 808.20, he shall notify the State or political subdivision of the deficiencies in the application and of the opportunity to correct such deficiencies. A deficient application may be corrected at any time.

(c) After receipt of an application meeting the requirements of § 808.20, the Commissioner shall review such application and determine whether to grant or deny an exemption from preemption for each requirement which is the subject of the application. The Commissioner shall then issue in the Federal Register a proposed regulation either to grant or to deny an exemption from preemption. The Commissioner shall also issue in the Federal Register a notice of opportunity to request an oral hearing before the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee.

(d) A request for an oral hearing may be made by the State or political subdivision or any other interested person. Such request shall be submitted to the Division of Dockets Management within the period of time prescribed in the notice and shall include an explanation of why an oral hearing, rather than submission of written comments only, is essential to the presentation of views on the application for exemption from preemption and the proposed regulation.

(e) If a timely request for an oral hearing is made, the Commissioner shall review such a request and may grant a legislative-type informal oral hearing pursuant to part 15 of this chapter by publishing in the Federal Register a notice of the hearing in accordance with § 15.20 of this chapter. The scope of the oral hearing shall be limited to matters relevant to the application for exemption from preemption and the proposed regulation. Oral or written presentations at the oral hearing which are not relevant to the application shall be excluded from the administrative record of the hearing.

(f) If a request for hearing is not timely made or a notice of appearance is not filed pursuant to § 15.21 of this chapter, the Commissioner shall consider all written comments submitted and publish a final rule in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.

(g)(1) The Commissioner shall review all written comments submitted on the proposed rule and the administrative record of the oral hearing, if an oral hearing has been granted, and shall publish in the Federal Register a final rule in subpart C of this part identifying any requirement in the application for which exemption from preemption is granted, or conditionally granted, and any requirement in the application for which exemption from preemption is not granted.

(2) The Commissioner may issue a regulation granting or conditionally granting an application for an exemption from preemption for any requirement if the Commissioner makes either of the following findings:

(i) The requirement is more stringent than a requirement applicable to the device under the act;

(ii) The requirement is required by compelling local conditions, and compliance with the requirement would not cause the device to be in violation of any requirement applicable to the device under the act.

(3) The Commissioner may not grant an application for an exemption from preemption for any requirement with respect to a device if the Commissioner determines that the granting of an exemption would not be in the best interest of public health, taking into account the potential burden on interstate commerce.

(h) An advisory opinion pursuant to § 808.5 or a regulation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section constitutes final agency action.

(a) An exemption from preemption pursuant to a regulation under this part shall remain effective until the Commissioner revokes such exemption.

(b) The Commissioner may by regulation, in accordance with § 808.25, revoke an exemption from preemption for any of the following reasons:

(1) An exemption may be revoked upon the effective date of a newly established requirement under the act which, in the Commissioner's view, addresses the objectives of an exempt requirement and which is described, when issued, as preempting a previously exempt State or local requirement.

(2) An exemption may be revoked upon a finding that there has occurred a change in the bases listed in § 808.20(c)(4) upon which the exemption was granted.

(3) An exemption may be revoked if it is determined that a condition placed on the exemption by the regulation under which the exemption was granted has not been met or is no longer being met.

(4) An exemption may be revoked if a State or local jurisdiction fails to submit records as provided in § 808.20(c)(6).

(5) An exemption may be revoked if a State or local jurisdiction to whom the exemption was originally granted requests revocation.

(6) An exemption may be revoked if it is determined that it is no longer in the best interests of the public health to continue the exemption.

(c) An exemption that has been revoked may be reinstated, upon request from the State or political subdivision, if the Commissioner, in accordance with the procedures in § 808.25, determines that the grounds for revocation are no longer applicable except that the Commissioner may permit abbreviated submissions of the documents and materials normally required for an application for exemption under § 808.20.

The following Arizona medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them exemptions from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(a) Arizona Revised Statutes, Chapter 17, sections 36-1901.7(s) and 36-1901.7(t).

(b) Arizona Code of Revised Regulations, Title 9, Article 3, sections R9-16-303 and R9-16-304.

(a) The following California medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521 of the act because the Food and Drug Administration exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Business and Professions Code sections 3365 and 3365.6.

(b) The following California medical device requirements are preempted by section 521 of the act, and FDA has denied them an exemption from preemption:

(1) Sherman Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Law (Division 21 of the California Health and Safety Code), sections 26207, 26607, 26614, 26615, 26618, 26631, 26640, and 26641, to the extent that they apply to devices.

(2) Sherman Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Law, section 26463(m) to the extent that it applies to hearing aids.

(3) Business and Professions Code section 2541.3, to the extent that it requires adoption of American National Standards Institute standards Z-80.1 and Z-80.2.

The following Connecticut medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Connecticut General Statutes, sections 20-403 and 20-404.

The following Florida medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(a) Florida Statutes, section 468.135(5).

(b) Florida Administrative Code, section 10D-48.25(26).

(a) The following Hawaii medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521 of the act, because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Hawaii Revised Statutes, chapter 451A, § 14.1, subsection (a) with respect to medical examination of a child 10 years of age or under, and subsection (c).

(b) The following Hawaii medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them exemption from preemption: Hawaii Revised Statutes, chapter 451A, § 14.1, subsection (a) to the extent that it requires a written authorization by a physician and does not allow adults to waive this requirement for personal, as well as religious reasons, and subsection (b).

The following Kentucky medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Kentucky Revised Statutes, section 334.200(1).

(a) The following Maine medical device requirement is enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted it from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Maine Revised Statutes Annotated, Title 32, section 1658-C, on the condition that, in enforcing this requirement, Maine apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following Maine medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Maine Revised Statutes Annotated, Title 32, section 1658-D and the last sentence of section 1658-E.

(a) The following Massachusetts medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521 of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(1) Massachusetts General Laws, Chapter 93, Section 72, to the extent that it requires a hearing test evaluation for a child under the age of 18.

(2) Massachusetts General Laws, Chapter 93, Section 74, except as provided in paragraph (6) of the Section, on the condition that, in enforcing this requirement, Massachusetts apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following Massachusetts medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them exemptions from preemption under section 521(b) of the act.

(1) Massachusetts General Laws, Chapter 93, Section 72, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.

(2) Massachusetts General Laws, Chapter 93, Section 74, to the extent that it requires that the sales receipt contain a statement that State law requires a medical examination and a hearing test evaluation before the sale of a hearing aid.

The following Minnesota medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Minnesota Statutes, sections 145.43 and 145.44.

The following Mississippi medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Mississippi Code, section 73-14-3(g)(9).

(a) The following Nebraska medical device requirement is enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted it from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Nebraska Revised Statutes, section 71-4712(2)(c)(vi).

(b) The following Nebraska medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Nebraska Revised Statutes, section 71-4712(2)(c)(vii).

(a) The following New Jersey medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(1) New Jersey Statutes Annotated, section 45:9A-23 on the condition that, in enforcing this requirement, New Jersey apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter;

(2) New Jersey Statutes Annotated, sections 45:9A-24 and 45:9A-25;

(3) Chapter 3, Section 5 of the Rules and Regulations adopted pursuant to New Jersey Statutes Annotated 45:9A-1 et seq. except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) The following New Jersey medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Chapter 3, Section 5 of the Rules and Regulations adopted pursuant to New Jersey Statutes Annotated 45:9A-1 et seq. to the extent that it requires testing to be conducted in an environment which meets or exceeds the American National Standards Institute S3.1 Standard.

The following New Mexico medical device requirement is enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted it from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: New Mexico Statutes Annotated, section 67-36-16(F).

(a) The following New York medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(1) General Business Law, Article 37, sections 784(3) and (4).

(2) Official Compilation of Codes, Rules and Regulations of the State of New York, Chapter V, Title 19, Subchapter G, section 191.10 and section 191.11(a) on the condition that, in enforcing these requirements, New York apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter and section 191.11(b), (c), (d), and (e).

(b) The following New York medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them an exemptions from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(1) General Business Law, Article 37, section 784.1.

(2) Official Compilation of Codes, Rules and Regulations of the State of New York, Chapter V, Title 19, Subchapter G, sections 191.6, 191.7, 191.8, and 191.9.

(a) The following Ohio medical device requirement is enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted it from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Ohio Revised Code, section 4747.09, the first two sentences with respect to disclosure of information to purchasers on the condition that, in enforcing these requirements, Ohio apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following Ohio medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Ohio Revised Code, section 4747.09, the last two sentences with respect to medical examination of children.

(a) The following Oregon medical device requriements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Oregon Revised Statutes, section 694.036 on the condition that, in enforcing this requirement, Oregon apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following Oregon medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them exemptions from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Oregon Revised Statutes, sections 694.136(6) and (7).

(a) The following Pennsylvania medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: 35 Purdon's Statutes 6700, section 504(4) on the condition that, in enforcing this requirement, Pennsylvania apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter; section 506; and, section 507(2).

(b) The following Pennsylvania medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: 35 Purdon's Statutes 6700, section 402.

The following Rhode Island medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Rhode Island General Laws, Section 5-49-2.1, and Section 2.2, to the extent that Section 2.2 requires hearing aid dispensers to keep copies of the certificates of need.

(a) The following Texas medical device requirement is enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted it from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Vernon's Civil Statutes, Article 4566, section 14(b) on the condition that, in enforcing this requirement, Texas apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following Texas medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Vernon's Civil Statutes, Article 4566, section 14(d).

(a) The following Washington medical device requirement is enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted it from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Revised Code of Washington 18.35.110(2)(e) (i) and (iii) on the condition that it is enforced in addition to the applicable requirements of this chapter.

(b) The following Washington medical device requirements are preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied them an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Revised Code of Washington 18.35.110(2)(e)(ii).

(a) The following West Virginia medical device requirements are enforceable notwithstanding section 521(a) of the act because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption: West Virginia Code, sections 30-26-14 (b) and (c) and section 30-26-15(a) on the condition that in enforcing section 30-26-15(a) West Virginia apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following West Virginia medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: West Virginia Code, section 30-26-14(a).

(a) The following District of Columbia medical device requirements are enforceable, notwithstanding section 521 of the act, because the Food and Drug Administration has exempted them from preemption under section 521(b) of the act:

(1) Act 2-79, section 5, to the extent that it requires an audiological evaluation for children under the age of 18.

(2) Act 2-79, section 6, on the condition that in enforcing section 6(a)(5), the District of Columbia apply the definition of “used hearing aid” in § 801.420(a)(6) of this chapter.

(b) The following District of Columbia medical device requirement is preempted by section 521(a) of the act, and the Food and Drug Administration has denied it an exemption from preemption under section 521(b) of the act: Act 2-79, section 5, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.

(a) In vitro diagnostic products are those reagents, instruments, and systems intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions, including a determination of the state of health, in order to cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease or its sequelae. Such products are intended for use in the collection, preparation, and examination of specimens taken from the human body. These products are devices as defined in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), and may also be biological products subject to section 351 of the Public Health Service Act.

(b) A product class is all those products intended for use for a particular determination or for a related group of determinations or products with common or related characteristics or those intended for common or related uses. A class may be further divided into subclasses when appropriate.

(c) [Reserved]

(d) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

Data and information submitted under § 809.10(c) that are shown to fall within the exemption established in § 20.61 of this chapter shall be treated as confidential by the Food and Drug Administration and any person to whom the data and information are referred. The Food and Drug Administration will determine whether information submitted will be treated as confidential in accordance with the provisions of part 20 of this chapter.

(a) The label for an in vitro diagnostic product shall state the following information, except where such information is not applicable, or as otherwise specified in a standard for a particular product class or as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. Section 201(k) of the act provides that “a requirement made by or under authority of this act that any word, statement, or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also appears on the outside container or wrapper, if any there be, of the retail package of such article, or is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper.”

(1) The proprietary name and established name (common or usual name), if any.

(2) The intended use or uses of the product.

(3) For a reagent, a declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any, and quantity, proportion or concentration of each reactive ingredient; and for a reagent derived from biological material, the source and a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration, or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc.

(4) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product; and a statement “For In Vitro Diagnostic Use” and any other limiting statements appropriate to the intended use of the product. The limiting statement appropriate to the intended use of a prescription in vitro diagnostic product shall bear the symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” or the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ___”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician”, “dentist”, “veterinarian”, or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which the practitioner practices to use or order the use of the device.

(5) For a reagent, appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, and other pertinent factors. For products requiring manipulation, such as reconstitution and/or mixing before use, appropriate storage instructions shall be provided for the reconstituted or mixed product which is to be stored in the original container. The basis for such instructions shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter.

(6) For a reagent, a means by which the user may be assured that the product meets appropriate standards of identity, strength, quality and purity at the time of use. This shall be provided, both for the product as provided and for any resultant reconstituted or mixed product, by including on the label one or more of the following:

(i) An expiration date based upon the stated storage instructions.

(ii) A statement of an observable indication of an alteration of the product, e.g., turbidity, color change, precipitate, beyond its appropriate standards.

(iii) Instructions for a simple method by which the user can reasonably determine that the product meets its appropriate standards.

(7) For a reagent, a declaration of the net quantity of contents, expressed in terms of weight or volume, numerical count, or any combination of these or other terms which accurately reflect the contents of the package. The use of metric designations is encouraged, wherever appropriate. If more than a single determination may be performed using the product, any statement of the number of tests shall be consistent with instructions for use and amount of material provided.

(8) Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

(9) A lot or control number, identified as such, from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the product.

(i) If it is a multiple unit product, the lot or control number shall permit tracing the identity of the individual units.

(ii) For an instrument, the lot or control number shall permit tracing the identity of all functional subassemblies.

(iii) For multiple unit products which require the use of included units together as a system, all units should bear the same lot or control number, if appropriate, or other suitable uniform identification should be used.

(10) Except that for items in paragraphs (a) (1) through (9) of this section: (i) In the case of immediate containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information and which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for use, the information required by paragraphs (a) (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) (ii), (iii) and (7) of this section may appear in the outer container labeling only.

(ii) In any case in which the presence of this information on the immediate container will interfere with the test, the information may appear on the outside container or wrapper rather than on the immediate container label.

(b) Labeling accompanying each product, e.g., a package insert, shall state in one place the following information in the format and order specified below, except where such information is not applicable, or as specified in a standard for a particular product class. The labeling for a multiple-purpose instrument used for diagnostic purposes, and not committed to specific diagnostic procedures or systems, may bear only the information indicated in paragraphs (b) (1), (2), (6), (14), and (15) of this section. The labeling for a reagent intended for use as a replacement in a diagnostic system may be limited to that information necessary to identify the reagent adequately and to describe its proper use in the system.

(1) The proprietary name and established name, i.e., common or usual name, if any.

(2) The intended use or uses of the product and the type of procedure, e.g., qualitative or quantitative.

(3) Summary and explanation of the test. Include a short history of the methodology, with pertinent references and a balanced statement of the special merits and limitations of this method or product. If the product labeling refers to any other procedure, appropriate literature citations shall be included and the labeling shall explain the nature of any differences from the original and their effect on the results.

(4) The chemical, physical, physiological, or biological principles of the procedure. Explain concisely, with chemical reactions and techniques involved, if applicable.

(5) Reagents:

(i) A declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any, and quantity, proportion or concentration or each reactive ingredient; and for biological material, the source and a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc. A statement indicating the presence of and characterizing any catalytic or nonreactive ingredients, e.g., buffers, preservatives, stabilizers.

(ii) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product; and a statement “For In Vitro Diagnostic Use” and any other limiting statements appropriate to the intended use of the product. The limiting statement appropriate to the intended use of a prescription in vitro diagnostic product shall bear the symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” or the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this device to sale by or on the order of a ___”, the blank to be filled with the word “physician”, “dentist”, “veterinarian”, or with the descriptive designation of any other practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which the practitioner practices to use or order the use of the device.

(iii) Adequate instructions for reconstitution, mixing, dilution, etc.

(iv) Appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, and other pertinent factors. For products requiring manipulation, such as reconstitution and/or mixing before use, appropriate storage instructions shall be provided for the reconstituted or mixed product. The basis for such instructions shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter.

(v) A statement of any purification or treatment required for use.

(vi) Physical, biological, or chemical indications of instability or deterioration.

(6) Instruments:

(i) Use or function.

(ii) Installation procedures and special requirements.

(iii) Principles of operation.

(iv) Performance characteristics and specifications.

(v) Operating instructions.

(vi) Calibration procedures including materials and/or equipment to be used.

(vii) Operational precautions and limitations.

(viii) Hazards.

(ix) Service and maintenance information.

(7) Specimen collection and preparation for analysis, including a description of:

(i) Special precautions regarding specimen collection including special preparation of the patient as it bears on the validity of the test.

(ii) Additives, preservatives, etc., necessary to maintain the integrity of the specimen.

(iii) Known interfering substances.

(iv) Recommended storage, handling or shipping instructions for the protection and maintenance of stability of the specimen.

(8) Procedure: A step-by-step outline of recommended procedures from reception of the specimen to obtaining results. List any points that may be useful in improving precision and accuracy.

(i) A list of all materials provided, e.g., reagents, instruments and equipment, with instructions for their use.

(ii) A list of all materials required but not provided. Include such details as sizes, numbers, types, and quality.

(iii) A description of the amounts of reagents necessary, times required for specific steps, proper temperatures, wavelengths, etc.

(iv) A statement describing the stability of the final reaction material to be measured and the time within which it shall be measured to assure accurate results.

(v) Details of calibration: Identify reference material. Describe preparation of reference sample(s), use of blanks, preparation of the standard curve, etc. The description of the range of calibration should include the highest and the lowest values measurable by the procedure.

(vi) Details of kinds of quality control procedures and materials required. If there is need for both positive and negative controls, this should be stated. State what are considered satisfactory limits of performance.

(9) Results: Explain the procedure for calculating the value of the unknown. Give an explanation for each component of the formula used for the calculation of the unknown. Include a sample calculation, step-by-step, explaining the answer. The values shall be expressed to the appropriate number of significant figures. If the test provides other than quantitative results, provide an adequate description of expected results.

(10) Limitation of the procedure: Include a statement of limitations of the procedure. State known extrinsic factors or interfering substances affecting results. If further testing, either more specific or more sensitive, is indicated in all cases where certain results are obtained, the need for the additional test shall be stated.

(11) Expected values: State the range(s) of expected values as obtained with the product from studies of various populations. Indicate how the range(s) was established and identify the population(s) on which it was established.

(12) Specific performance characteristics: Include, as appropriate, information describing such things as accuracy, precision, specificity, and sensitivity. These shall be related to a generally accepted method using biological specimens from normal and abnormal populations. Include a statement summarizing the data upon which the specific performance characteristics are based.

(13) Bibliography: Include pertinent references keyed to the text.

(14) Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

(15) Date of issuance of the last revision of the labeling identified as such.

(c) A shipment or other delivery of an in vitro diagnostic product shall be exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and from a standard promulgated under part 861 provided that the following conditions are met:

(1) In the case of a shipment or delivery for an investigation subject to part 812, if there has been compliance with part 812; or

(2) In the case of a shipment or delivery for an investigation that is not subject to part 812 (see § 812.2(c)), if the following conditions are met:

(i) For a product in the laboratory research phase of development, and not represented as an effective in vitro diagnostic product, all labeling bears the statement, prominently placed: “For Research Use Only. Not for use in diagnostic procedures.”

(ii) For a product being shipped or delivered for product testing prior to full commercial marketing (for example, for use on specimens derived from humans to compare the usefulness of the product with other products or procedures which are in current use or recognized as useful), all labeling bears the statement, prominently placed: “For Investigational Use Only. The performance characteristics of this product have not been established.”

(d) The labeling of general purpose laboratory reagents (e.g., hydrochloric acid) and equipment (e.g., test tubes and pipettes) whose uses are generally known by persons trained in their use need not bear the directions for use required by § 809.10(a) and (b), if their labeling meets the requirements of this paragraph.

(1) The label of a reagent shall bear the following information:

(i) The proprietary name and established name (common or usual name), if any, of the reagent.

(ii) A declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any, and quantity, proportion or concentration of the reagent ingredient (e.g., hydrochloric acid: Formula weight 36.46, assay 37.9 percent, specific gravity 1.192 at 60 °F); and for a reagent derived from biological material, the source and where applicable a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc.

(iii) A statement of the purity and quality of the reagent, including a quantitative declaration of any impurities present. The requirement for this information may be met by a statement of conformity with a generally recognized and generally available standard which contains the same information, e.g., those established by the American Chemical Society, U.S. Pharmacopeia, National Formulary, National Research Council.

(iv) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product; and a statement “For Laboratory Use.”

(v) Appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, and other pertinent factors. The basis for such information shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter.

(vi) A declaration of the net quantity of contents, expressed in terms of weight or volume, numerical count, or any combination of these or other terms which accurately reflect the contents of the package. The use of metric designations is encouraged, wherever appropriate.

(vii) Name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

(viii) A lot or control number, identified as such, from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the product.

(ix) In the case of immediate containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, and which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for use, the information required by paragraphs (d)(1)(ii), (iii), (iv), (v), and (vi) of this section may appear in the outer container labeling only.

(2) The label of general purpose laboratory equipment, e.g., a beaker or a pipette, shall bear a statement adequately describing the product, its composition, and physical characteristics if necessary for its proper use.

(e)(1) The labeling for analyte specific reagents (e.g., monoclonal antibodies, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probes, viral antigens, ligands) shall bear the following information:

(i) The proprietary name and established name (common or usual name), if any, of the reagent;

(ii) A declaration of the established name (common or usual name), if any;

(iii) The quantity, proportion, or concentration of the reagent ingredient; and for a reagent derived from biological material, the source and where applicable, a measure of its activity. The quantity, proportion, concentration, or activity shall be stated in the system generally used and recognized by the intended user, e.g., metric, international units, etc.;

(iv) A statement of the purity and quality of the reagent, including a quantitative declaration of any impurities present and method of analysis or characterization. The requirement for this information may be met by a statement of conformity with a generally recognized and generally available standard that contains the same information, e.g., those established by the American Chemical Society, U.S. Pharmacopeia, National Formulary, and National Research Council. The labeling may also include information concerning chemical/molecular composition, nucleic acid sequence, binding affinity, cross-reactivities, and interaction with substances of known clinical significance;

(v) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product;

(vi) The date of manufacture and appropriate storage instructions adequate to protect the stability of the product. When applicable, these instructions shall include such information as conditions of temperature, light, humidity, date of expiration, and other pertinent factors. The basis for such instructions shall be determined by reliable, meaningful, and specific test methods, such as those described in § 211.166 of this chapter;

(vii) A declaration of the net quantity of contents, expressed in terms of weight or volume, numerical count, or any combination of these or other terms that accurately reflect the contents of the package. The use of metric designations is encouraged, wherever appropriate;

(viii) The name and place of business of manufacturer, packer, or distributor;

(ix) A lot or control number, identified as such, from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the product;

(x) For class I exempt ASR's, the statement: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Analytical and performance characteristics are not established”; and

(xi) For class II and III ASR's, the statement: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Except as a component of the approved/cleared test (Name of approved/cleared test), analytical and performance characteristics of this ASR are not established.”

(2) In the case of immediate containers too small or otherwise unable to accommodate a label with sufficient space to bear all such information, and which are packaged within an outer container from which they are removed for use, the information required by paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(6) of this section may appear in the outer container labeling only.

(f) The labeling for over-the-counter (OTC) test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing shall bear the following information in language appropriate for the intended users:

(1) Adequate instructions for specimen collection and handling, and for preparation and mailing of the specimen to the laboratory for testing.

(2) An identification system to ensure that specimens are not mixed up or otherwise misidentified at the laboratory, and that user anonymity is maintained.

(3) The intended use or uses of the product, including what drugs are to be identified in the specimen, a quantitative description of the performance characteristics for those drugs (e.g., sensitivity and specificity) in terms understandable to lay users, and the detection period.

(4) A statement that confirmatory testing will be conducted on all samples that initially test positive.

(5) A statement of warnings or precautions for users as established in the regulations contained in 16 CFR part 1500 and any other warnings appropriate to the hazard presented by the product.

(6) Adequate instructions on how to obtain test results from a person who can explain their meaning, including the probability of false positive and false negative results, as well as how to contact a trained health professional if additional information on interpretation of test results from the laboratory or followup counseling is desired.

(7) Name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

(g)(1) The applicant may provide the labeling information referenced in this section in the form of:

(i) A symbol accompanied by explanatory text adjacent to the symbol;

(ii) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:

(A) Is contained in a standard that FDA recognizes under its authority in section 514(c) of the act;

(B) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition; and

(C) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used;

(iii) A symbol not accompanied by adjacent explanatory text that:

(A) Is established in a standard developed by a standards development organization (SDO);

(B) Is not contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA under its authority in section 514(c) of the act or is contained in a standard that is recognized by FDA but is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition;

(C) Is determined by the manufacturer to be likely to be read and understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions of purchase and use in compliance with section 502(c) of the act;

(D) Is used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in the SDO-developed standard; and

(E) Is explained in a paper or electronic symbols glossary that is included in the labeling for the device and the labeling on or within the package containing the device bears a prominent and conspicuous statement identifying the location of the symbols glossary that is written in English or, in the case of articles distributed solely in Puerto Rico or in a Territory where the predominant language is one other than English, the predominant language may be used; or

(iv) The symbol statement “Rx only” or “℞ only” used as provided under paragraphs (a)(4) and (b)(5)(ii) of this section.

(2) The use of symbols in device labeling which do not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section renders a device misbranded under section 502(c) of the act.

(3) For purposes of paragraph (g)(1) of this section:

(i) An SDO is an organization that is nationally or internationally recognized and that follows a process for standard development that is transparent, (i.e., open to public scrutiny), where the participation is balanced, where an appeals process is included, where the standard is not in conflict with any statute, regulation, or policy under which FDA operates, and where the standard is national or international in scope.

(ii) The term “symbols glossary” means a compiled listing of:

(A) Each SDO-established symbol used in the labeling for the device;

(B) The title and designation number of the SDO-developed standard containing the symbol;

(C) The title of the symbol and its reference number, if any, in the standard; and

(D) The meaning or explanatory text for the symbol as provided in the FDA recognition or, if FDA has not recognized the standard or portion of the standard in which the symbol is located or the symbol is not used according to the specifications for use of the symbol set forth in FDA's section 514(c) recognition, the explanatory text as provided in the standard.

(a) The appropriate FDA Center Director may grant an exception or alternative to any provision listed in paragraph (f) of this section and not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of an in vitro diagnostic product for human use, if the Center Director determines that compliance with such labeling requirement could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of such products that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.

(b)(1)(i) A Strategic National Stockpile official or any entity that manufactures (including labeling, packing, relabeling, or repackaging), distributes, or stores an in vitro diagnostic product for human use that is or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile may submit, with written concurrence from a Strategic National Stockpile official, a written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Center Director.

(ii) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section on his or her own initiative.

(2) A written request for an exception or alternative described in paragraph (a) of this section must:

(i) Identify the specified lots, batches, or other units of an in vitro diagnostic product for human use that would be subject to the exception or alternative;

(ii) Identify the labeling provision(s) listed in paragraph (f) of this section that are the subject of the exception or alternative request;

(iii) Explain why compliance with such labeling provision(s) could adversely affect the safety, effectiveness, or availability of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the in vitro diagnostic product for human use that are or will be held in the Strategic National Stockpile;

(iv) Describe any proposed safeguards or conditions that will be implemented so that the labeling of the product includes appropriate information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use of the product;

(v) Provide a draft of the proposed labeling of the specified lots, batches, or other units of the in vitro diagnostic products for human use subject to the exception or alternative; and

(vi) Provide any other information requested by the Center Director in support of the request.

(c) The Center Director must respond in writing to all requests under this section. The Center Director may impose appropriate conditions or safeguards when granting such an exception or alternative under this section.

(d) A grant of an exception or alternative under this section will include any safeguards or conditions deemed appropriate by the Center Director to ensure that the labeling of the product subject to the exception or alternative includes the information necessary for the safe and effective use of the product, given the anticipated circumstances of use.

(e) If the Center Director grants a request for an exception or alternative to the labeling requirements under this section:

(1) The Center Director may determine that the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to premarket notification submissions under § 807.81(a)(3) of this chapter.

(2)(i) For a Premarket Approval Application (PMA)-approved in vitro diagnostic product for human use, the submission and grant of a written request under this section satisfies the provisions relating to submission of PMA supplements under § 814.39 of this chapter; however,

(ii) The grant of the request must be identified in a periodic report under § 814.84 of this chapter.

(f) The Center Director may grant an exception or alternative under this section to the following provisions of this part, to the extent that the requirements in these provisions are not explicitly required by statute:

(1) § 809.10(a)(1) through (a)(6) and (a)(9);

(2) § 809.10(b);

(3) § 809.10(c)(2);

(4) § 809.10(d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(v), (d)(1)(viii), and (d)(2); and

(5) § 809.10(e)(1)(i) through (e)(1)(vi) and (e)(1)(ix) through (e)(1)(xi).

(a) [Reserved]

(b) Compliance with good manufacturing practices. In vitro diagnostic products shall be manufactured in accordance with the good manufacturing practices requirements found in part 820 of this chapter and, if applicable, with § 610.44 of this chapter.

(a) Analyte specific reagents (ASR's) (§ 864.4020 of this chapter) are restricted devices under section 520(e) of the Federal Food, Drugs, and Cosmetic Act (the act) subject to the restrictions set forth in this section.

(b) ASR's may only be sold to:

(1) In vitro diagnostic manufacturers;

(2) Clinical laboratories regulated under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA), as qualified to perform high complexity testing under 42 CFR part 493 or clinical laboratories regulated under VHA Directive 1106 (available from Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Health Administration, Washington, DC 20420); and

(3) Organizations that use the reagents to make tests for purposes other than providing diagnostic information to patients and practitioners, e.g., forensic, academic, research, and other nonclinical laboratories.

(c) ASR's must be labeled in accordance with § 809.10(e).

(d) Advertising and promotional materials for ASR's:

(1) Shall include the identity and purity (including source and method of acquisition) of the analyte specific reagent and the identity of the analyte;

(2) Shall include the statement for class I exempt ASR's: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Analytical and performance characteristics are not established”;

(3) Shall include the statement for class II or III ASR's: “Analyte Specific Reagent. Except as a component of the approved/cleared test (name of approved/cleared test), analytical and performance characteristics are not established”; and

(4) Shall not make any statement regarding analytical or clinical performance.

(e) The laboratory that develops an in-house test using the ASR shall inform the ordering person of the test result by appending to the test report the statement: “This test was developed and its performance characteristics determined by (Laboratory Name). It has not been cleared or approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.” This statement would not be applicable or required when test results are generated using the test that was cleared or approved in conjunction with review of the class II or III ASR.

(f) Ordering in-house tests that are developed using analyte specific reagents is limited under section 520(e) of the act to physicians and other persons authorized by applicable State law to order such tests.

(g) The restrictions in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section do not apply when reagents that otherwise meet the analyte specific reagent definition are sold to:

(1) In vitro diagnostic manufacturers; or

(2) Organizations that use the reagents to make tests for purposes other than providing diagnostic information to patients and practitioners, e.g., forensic, academic, research, and other nonclinical laboratories.

(a) Over-the-counter (OTC) test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing (§ 864.3260 of this chapter) are restricted devices under section 520(e) of the Act subject to the restrictions set forth in this section.

(b) Sample testing shall be performed in a laboratory using screening tests that have been approved, cleared, or otherwise recognized by the Food and Drug Administration as accurate and reliable for the testing of such specimens for identifying drugs of abuse or their metabolites.

(c) The laboratory performing the test(s) shall have, and shall be recognized as having, adequate capability to reliably perform the necessary screening and confirmatory tests, including adequate capability to perform integrity checks of the biological specimens for possible adulteration.

(d) All OTC test sample collection systems for drugs of abuse testing shall be labeled in accordance with § 809.10(f) and shall provide an adequate system to communicate the proper interpretation of test results from the laboratory to the lay purchaser.

Part 810 describes the procedures that the Food and Drug Administration will follow in exercising its medical device recall authority under section 518(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

As used in this part:

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(b) Agency or FDA means the Food and Drug Administration.

(c) Cease distribution and notification strategy or mandatory recall strategy means a planned, specific course of action to be taken by the person named in a cease distribution and notification order or in a mandatory recall order, which addresses the extent of the notification or recall, the need for public warnings, and the extent of effectiveness checks to be conducted.

(d) Consignee means any person or firm that has received, purchased, or used a device that is subject to a cease distribution and notification order or a mandatory recall order. Consignee does not mean lay individuals or patients, i.e., nonhealth professionals.

(e) Correction means repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including patient monitoring) of a device, without its physical removal from its point of use to some other location.

(f) Device user facility means a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, nursing home, or outpatient treatment or diagnostic facility that is not a physician's office.

(g) Health professionals means practitioners, including physicians, nurses, pharmacists, dentists, respiratory therapists, physical therapists, technologists, or any other practitioners or allied health professionals that have a role in using a device for human use.

(h) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(i) Reasonable probability means that it is more likely than not that an event will occur.

(j) Serious, adverse health consequence means any significant adverse experience, including those that may be either life-threatening or involve permanent or long-term injuries, but excluding injuries that are nonlife-threatening and that are temporary and reasonably reversible.

(k) Recall means the correction or removal of a device for human use where FDA finds that there is a reasonable probability that the device would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.

(l) Removal means the physical removal of a device from its point of use to some other location for repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection.

(m) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this part, the day of the act or event from which the designated period of time begins to run shall not be included. The computation of time is based only on working days.

Orders issued under this part will be served in person by a designated employee of FDA, or by certified or registered mail or similar mail delivery service with a return receipt record reflecting receipt, to the named person or designated agent at the named person's or designated agent's last known address in FDA's records.

(a) If, after providing the appropriate person with an opportunity to consult with the agency, FDA finds that there is a reasonable probability that a device intended for human use would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, the agency may issue a cease distribution and notification order requiring the person named in the order to immediately:

(1) Cease distribution of the device;

(2) Notify health professionals and device user facilities of the order; and

(3) Instruct these professionals and device user facilities to cease use of the device.

(b) FDA will include the following information in the order:

(1) The requirements of the order relating to cessation of distribution and notification of health professionals and device user facilities;

(2) Pertinent descriptive information to enable accurate and immediate identification of the device subject to the order, including, where known:

(i) The brand name of the device;

(ii) The common name, classification name, or usual name of the device;

(iii) The model, catalog, or product code numbers of the device;

(iv) The manufacturing lot numbers or serial numbers of the device or other identification numbers; and

(v) The unique device identifier (UDI) that appears on the device label or on the device package; and

(3) A statement of the grounds for FDA's finding that there is a reasonable probability that the device would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.

(c) FDA may also include in the order a model letter for notifying health professionals and device user facilities of the order and a requirement that notification of health professionals and device user facilities be completed within a specified timeframe. The model letter will include the key elements of information that the agency in its discretion has determined, based on the circumstances surrounding the issuance of each order, are necessary to inform health professionals and device user facilities about the order.

(d) FDA may also require that the person named in the cease distribution and notification order submit any or all of the following information to the agency by a time specified in the order:

(1) The total number of units of the device produced and the timespan of the production;

(2) The total number of units of the device estimated to be in distribution channels;

(3) The total number of units of the device estimated to be distributed to health professionals and device user facilities;

(4) The total number of units of the device estimated to be in the hands of home users;

(5) Distribution information, including the names and addresses of all consignees;

(6) A copy of any written communication used by the person named in the order to notify health professionals and device user facilities;

(7) A proposed strategy for complying with the cease distribution and notification order;

(8) Progress reports to be made at specified intervals, showing the names and addresses of health professionals and device user facilities that have been notified, names of specific individuals contacted within device user facilities, and the dates of such contacts; and

(9) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who should be contacted concerning implementation of the order.

(e) FDA will provide the person named in a cease distribution and notification order with an opportunity for a regulatory hearing on the actions required by the cease distribution and notification order and on whether the order should be modified, or vacated, or amended to require a mandatory recall of the device.

(f) FDA will also provide the person named in the cease distribution and notification order with an opportunity, in lieu of a regulatory hearing, to submit a written request to FDA asking that the order be modified, or vacated, or amended.

(g) FDA will include in the cease distribution and notification order the name, address, and telephone number of an agency employee to whom any request for a regulatory hearing or agency review is to be addressed.

(a) Any request for a regulatory hearing shall be submitted in writing to the agency employee identified in the order within the timeframe specified by FDA. Under § 16.22(b) of this chapter, this timeframe ordinarily will not be fewer than 3 working days after receipt of the cease distribution and notification order. However, as provided in § 16.60(h) of this chapter, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or presiding officer may waive, suspend, or modify any provision of part 16 under § 10.19 of this chapter, including those pertaining to the timing of the hearing. As provided in § 16.26(a), the Commissioner or presiding officer may deny a request for a hearing, in whole or in part, if he or she determines that no genuine and substantial issue of fact is raised by the material submitted in the request.

(b) If a request for a regulatory hearing is granted, the regulatory hearing shall be limited to:

(1) Reviewing the actions required by the cease distribution and notification order, determining if FDA should affirm, modify, or vacate the order, and addressing an appropriate cease distribution and notification strategy; and

(2) Determining whether FDA should amend the cease distribution and notification order to require a recall of the device that was the subject of the order. The hearing may also address the actions that might be required by a recall order, including an appropriate recall strategy, if FDA later orders a recall.

(c) If a request by the person named in a cease distribution and notification order for a regulatory hearing is granted, the regulatory hearing will be conducted in accordance with the procedures set out in section 201(x) of the act (21 U.S.C. 321(x)) and part 16 of this chapter, except that the order issued under § 810.10, rather than a notice under § 16.22(a) of this chapter, provides the notice of opportunity for a hearing and is part of the administrative record of the regulatory hearing under § 16.80(a) of this chapter. As provided in § 16.60(h) of this chapter, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or presiding officer may waive, suspend, or modify any provision of part 16 under § 10.19 of this chapter. As provided in § 16.26(b), after the hearing commences, the presiding officer may issue a summary decision on any issue if the presiding officer determines that there is no genuine and substantial issue of fact respecting that issue.

(d) If the person named in the cease distribution and notification order does not request a regulatory hearing within the timeframe specified by FDA in the cease distribution and notification order, that person will be deemed to have waived his or her right to request a hearing.

(e) The presiding officer will ordinarily hold any regulatory hearing requested under paragraph (a) of this section no fewer than 2 working days after receipt of the request for a hearing, under § 16.24(e) of this chapter, and no later than 10 working days after the date of issuance of the cease distribution and notification order. However, FDA and the person named in the order may agree to a later date or the presiding officer may determine that the hearing should be held in fewer than 2 days. Moreover, as provided for in § 16.60(h) of this chapter, the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or presiding officer may waive, suspend, or modify any provision of part 16 under § 10.19 of this chapter, including those pertaining to the timing of the hearing. After the presiding officer prepares a written report of the hearing and the agency issues a final decision based on the report, the presiding officer shall provide the requestor written notification of the final decision to affirm, modify, or vacate the order or to amend the order to require a recall of the device within 15 working days of conducting a regulatory hearing.

(a) In lieu of requesting a regulatory hearing under § 810.11, the person named in a cease distribution and notification order may submit a written request to FDA asking that the order be modified or vacated. Such person shall address the written request to the agency employee identified in the order and shall submit the request within the timeframe specified in the order, unless FDA and the person named in the order agree to a later date.

(b) A written request for review of a cease distribution and notification order shall identify each ground upon which the requestor relies in asking that the order be modified or vacated, as well as addressing an appropriate cease distribution and notification strategy, and shall address whether the order should be amended to require a recall of the device that was the subject of the order and the actions required by such a recall order, including an appropriate recall strategy.

(c) The agency official who issued the cease distribution and notification order shall provide the requestor written notification of the agency's decision to affirm, modify, or vacate the order or amend the order to require a recall of the device within 15 working days of receipt of the written request. The agency official shall include in this written notification:

(1) A statement of the grounds for the decision to affirm, modify, vacate, or amend the order; and

(2) The requirements of any modified or amended order.

(a) If the person named in a cease distribution and notification order does not request a regulatory hearing or submit a request for agency review of the order, or, if the Commissioner of Food and Drugs or the presiding officer denies a request for a hearing, or, if after conducting a regulatory hearing under § 810.11 or completing agency review of a cease distribution and notification order under § 810.12, FDA determines that the order should be amended to require a recall of the device with respect to which the order was issued, FDA shall amend the order to require such a recall. FDA shall amend the order to require such a recall within 15 working days of issuance of a cease distribution and notification order if a regulatory hearing or agency review of the order is not requested, or within 15 working days of denying a request for a hearing, or within 15 working days of completing a regulatory hearing under § 810.11, or within 15 working days of receipt of a written request for review of a cease distribution and notification order under § 810.12.

(b) In a mandatory recall order, FDA may:

(1) Specify that the recall is to extend to the wholesale, retail, or user level;

(2) Specify a timetable in accordance with which the recall is to begin and be completed;

(3) Require the person named in the order to submit to the agency a proposed recall strategy, as described in § 810.14, and periodic reports describing the progress of the mandatory recall, as described in § 810.16; and

(4) Provide the person named in the order with a model recall notification letter that includes the key elements of information that FDA has determined are necessary to inform health professionals and device user facilities.

(c) FDA will not include in a mandatory recall order a requirement for:

(1) Recall of a device from individuals; or

(2) Recall of a device from device user facilities, if FDA determines that the risk of recalling the device from the facilities presents a greater health risk than the health risk of not recalling the device from use, unless the device can be replaced immediately with an equivalent device.

(d) FDA will include in a mandatory recall order provisions for notification to individuals subject to the risks associated with use of the device. If a significant number of such individuals cannot be identified, FDA may notify such individuals under section 705(b) of the act.

(a) General. The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 shall comply with the order, which FDA will fashion as appropriate for the individual circumstances of the case. The person named in a cease distribution and notification order modified under § 810.11(e) or § 810.12(c) or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 shall develop a strategy for complying with the order that is appropriate for the individual circumstances and that takes into account the following factors:

(1) The nature of the serious, adverse health consequences related to the device;

(2) The ease of identifying the device;

(3) The extent to which the risk presented by the device is obvious to a health professional or device user facility; and

(4) The extent to which the device is used by health professionals and device user facilities.

(b) Submission and review. (1) The person named in the cease distribution and notification order modified under § 810.11(e) or § 810.12(c) or mandatory recall order shall submit a copy of the proposed strategy to the agency within the timeframe specified in the order.

(2) The agency will review the proposed strategy and make any changes to the strategy that it deems necessary within 7 working days of receipt of the proposed strategy. The person named in the order shall act in accordance with a strategy determined by FDA to be appropriate.

(c) Elements of the strategy. A proposed strategy shall meet all of the following requirements:

(1)(i) The person named in the order shall specify the level in the chain of distribution to which the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order is to extend as follows:

(A) Consumer or user level, e.g., health professionals, consignee, or device user facility level, including any intermediate wholesale or retail level; or

(B) Retail level, to the level immediately preceding the consumer or user level, and including any intermediate level; or

(C) Wholesale level.

(ii) The person named in the order shall not recall a device from individuals; and

(iii) The person named in the order shall not recall a device from device user facilities if FDA notifies the person not to do so because of a risk determination under § 810.13(c)(2).

(2) The person named in a recall order shall ensure that the strategy provides for notice to individuals subject to the risks associated with use of the recalled device. The notice may be provided through the individuals' health professionals if FDA determines that such consultation is appropriate and would be the most effective method of notifying patients.

(3) Effectiveness checks by the person named in the order are required to verify that all health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, and individuals, as appropriate, have been notified of the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order and of the need to take appropriate action. The person named in the cease distribution and notification order or the mandatory recall order shall specify in the strategy the method(s) to be used in addition to written communications as required by § 810.15, i.e., personal visits, telephone calls, or a combination thereof to contact all health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, and individuals, as appropriate. The agency may conduct additional audit checks where appropriate.

(a) General. The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 is responsible for promptly notifying each health professional, device user facility, consignee, or individual, as appropriate, of the order. In accordance with § 810.10(c) or § 810.13(b)(4), FDA may provide the person named in the cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order with a model letter for notifying each health professional, device user facility, consignee, or individual, as appropriate, of the order. However, if FDA does not provide the person named in the cease distribution and notification or mandatory recall order with a model letter, the person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10, or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13, is responsible for providing such notification. The purpose of the communication is to convey:

(1) That FDA has found that there is a reasonable probability that use of the device would cause a serious, adverse health consequence or death;

(2) That the person named in the order has ceased distribution of the device;

(3) That health professionals and device user facilities should cease use of the device immediately;

(4) Where appropriate, that the device is subject to a mandatory recall order; and

(5) Specific instructions on what should be done with the device.

(b) Implementation. The person named in a cease distribution and notification order, or a mandatory recall order, shall notify the appropriate person(s) of the order by verified written communication, e.g., telegram, mailgram, or fax. The written communication and any envelope in which it is sent or enclosed shall be conspicuously marked, preferably in bold red ink: “URGENT - [DEVICE CEASE DISTRIBUTION AND NOTIFICATION ORDER] or [MANDATORY DEVICE RECALL ORDER].” Telephone calls or other personal contacts may be made in addition to, but not as a substitute for, the verified written communication, and shall be documented in an appropriate manner.

(c) Contents. The person named in the order shall ensure that the notice of a cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order:

(1) Is brief and to the point;

(2) Identifies clearly the device, size, lot number(s), code(s), or serial number(s), and any other pertinent descriptive information to facilitate accurate and immediate identification of the device;

(3) Explains concisely the serious, adverse health consequences that may occur if use of the device were continued;

(4) Provides specific instructions on what should be done with the device;

(5) Provides a ready means for the recipient of the communication to confirm receipt of the communication and to notify the person named in the order of the actions taken in response to the communication. Such means may include, but are not limited to, the return of a postage-paid, self-addressed post card or a toll-free call to the person named in the order; and

(6) Does not contain irrelevant qualifications, promotional materials, or any other statement that may detract from the message.

(d) Followup communications. The person named in the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order shall ensure that followup communications are sent to all who fail to respond to the initial communication.

(e) Responsibility of the recipient. Health professionals, device user facilities, and consignees who receive a communication concerning a cease distribution and notification order or a mandatory recall order should immediately follow the instructions set forth in the communication. Where appropriate, these recipients should immediately notify their consignees of the order in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(a) The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 shall submit periodic status reports to FDA to enable the agency to assess the person's progress in complying with the order. The frequency of such reports and the agency official to whom such reports shall be submitted will be specified in the order.

(b) Unless otherwise specified in the order, each status report shall contain the following information:

(1) The number and type of health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, or individuals notified about the order and the date and method of notification;

(2) The number and type of health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, or individuals who have responded to the communication and the quantity of the device on hand at these locations at the time they received the communication;

(3) The number and type of health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, or individuals who have not responded to the communication;

(4) The number of devices returned or corrected by each health professional, device user facility, consignee, or individual contacted, and the quantity of products accounted for;

(5) The number and results of effectiveness checks that have been made; and

(6) Estimated timeframes for completion of the requirements of the cease distribution and notification order or mandatory recall order.

(c) The person named in the cease distribution and notification order or recall order may discontinue the submission of status reports when the agency terminates the order in accordance with § 810.17.

(a) The person named in a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 may request termination of the order by submitting a written request to FDA. The person submitting a request shall certify that he or she has complied in full with all of the requirements of the order and shall include a copy of the most current status report submitted to the agency under § 810.16. A request for termination of a recall order shall include a description of the disposition of the recalled device.

(b) FDA may terminate a cease distribution and notification order issued under § 810.10 or a mandatory recall order issued under § 810.13 when the agency determines that the person named in the order:

(1) Has taken all reasonable efforts to ensure and to verify that all health professionals, device user facilities, consignees, and, where appropriate, individuals have been notified of the cease distribution and notification order, and to verify that they have been instructed to cease use of the device and to take other appropriate action; or

(2) Has removed the device from the market or has corrected the device so that use of the device would not cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.

(c) FDA will provide written notification to the person named in the order when a request for termination of a cease distribution and notification order or a mandatory recall order has been granted or denied. FDA will respond to a written request for termination of a cease distribution and notification or recall order within 30 working days of its receipt.

The agency will make available to the public in the weekly FDA Enforcement Report a descriptive listing of each new mandatory recall issued under § 810.13. The agency will delay public notification of orders when the agency determines that such notification may cause unnecessary and harmful anxiety in individuals and that initial consultation between individuals and their health professionals is essential.

(a) The purpose of this part is to encourage, to the extent consistent with the protection of public health and safety and with ethical standards, the discovery and development of useful devices intended for human use, and to that end to maintain optimum freedom for scientific investigators in their pursuit of this purpose. This part provides procedures for the conduct of clinical investigations of devices. An approved investigational device exemption (IDE) permits a device that otherwise would be required to comply with a performance standard or to have premarket approval to be shipped lawfully for the purpose of conducting investigations of that device. An IDE approved under § 812.30 or considered approved under § 812.2(b) exempts a device from the requirements of the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) and regulations issued thereunder: Misbranding under section 502 of the act, registration, listing, and premarket notification under section 510, performance standards under section 514, premarket approval under section 515, a banned device regulation under section 516, records and reports under section 519, restricted device requirements under section 520(e), good manufacturing practice requirements under section 520(f) except for the requirements found in § 820.30, if applicable (unless the sponsor states an intention to comply with these requirements under § 812.20(b)(3) or § 812.140(b)(4)(v)) and color additive requirements under section 721.

(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.

(a) General. This part applies to all clinical investigations of devices to determine safety and effectiveness, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Abbreviated requirements. The following categories of investigations are considered to have approved applications for IDE's, unless FDA has notified a sponsor under § 812.20(a) that approval of an application is required:

(1) An investigation of a device other than a significant risk device, if the device is not a banned device and the sponsor:

(i) Labels the device in accordance with § 812.5;

(ii) Obtains IRB approval of the investigation after presenting the reviewing IRB with a brief explanation of why the device is not a significant risk device, and maintains such approval;

(iii) Ensures that each investigator participating in an investigation of the device obtains from each subject under the investigator's care, informed consent under part 50 and documents it, unless documentation is waived by an IRB under § 56.109(c).

(iv) Complies with the requirements of § 812.46 with respect to monitoring investigations;

(v) Maintains the records required under § 812.140(b) (4) and (5) and makes the reports required under § 812.150(b) (1) through (3) and (5) through (10);

(vi) Ensures that participating investigators maintain the records required by § 812.140(a)(3)(i) and make the reports required under § 812.150(a) (1), (2), (5), and (7); and

(vii) Complies with the prohibitions in § 812.7 against promotion and other practices.

(2) An investigation of a device other than one subject to paragraph (e) of this section, if the investigation was begun on or before July 16, 1980, and to be completed, and is completed, on or before January 19, 1981.

(c) Exempted investigations. This part, with the exception of § 812.119, does not apply to investigations of the following categories of devices:

(1) A device, other than a transitional device, in commercial distribution immediately before May 28, 1976, when used or investigated in accordance with the indications in labeling in effect at that time.

(2) A device, other than a transitional device, introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, that FDA has determined to be substantially equivalent to a device in commercial distribution immediately before May 28, 1976, and that is used or investigated in accordance with the indications in the labeling FDA reviewed under subpart E of part 807 in determining substantial equivalence.

(3) A diagnostic device, if the sponsor complies with applicable requirements in § 809.10(c) and if the testing:

(i) Is noninvasive,

(ii) Does not require an invasive sampling procedure that presents significant risk,

(iii) Does not by design or intention introduce energy into a subject, and

(iv) Is not used as a diagnostic procedure without confirmation of the diagnosis by another, medically established diagnostic product or procedure.

(4) A device undergoing consumer preference testing, testing of a modification, or testing of a combination of two or more devices in commercial distribution, if the testing is not for the purpose of determining safety or effectiveness and does not put subjects at risk.

(5) A device intended solely for veterinary use.

(6) A device shipped solely for research on or with laboratory animals and labeled in accordance with § 812.5(c).

(7) A custom device as defined in § 812.3(b), unless the device is being used to determine safety or effectiveness for commercial distribution.

(d) Limit on certain exemptions. In the case of class II or class III device described in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, this part applies beginning on the date stipulated in an FDA regulation or order that calls for the submission of premarket approval applications for an unapproved class III device, or establishes a performance standard for a class II device.

(e) Investigations subject to IND's. A sponsor that, on July 16, 1980, has an effective investigational new drug application (IND) for an investigation of a device shall continue to comply with the requirements of part 312 until 90 days after that date. To continue the investigation after that date, a sponsor shall comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the device is not a significant risk device, or shall have obtained FDA approval under § 812.30 of an IDE application for the investigation of the device.

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sections 201-901, 52 Stat. 1040 et seq., as amended (21 U.S.C. 301-392)).

(b) A custom device means a device within the meaning of section 520(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(c) FDA means the Food and Drug Administration.

(d) Implant means a device that is placed into a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body if it is intended to remain there for a period of 30 days or more. FDA may, in order to protect public health, determine that devices placed in subjects for shorter periods are also “implants” for purposes of this part.

(e) Institution means a person, other than an individual, who engages in the conduct of research on subjects or in the delivery of medical services to individuals as a primary activity or as an adjunct to providing residential or custodial care to humans. The term includes, for example, a hospital, retirement home, confinement facility, academic establishment, and device manufacturer. The term has the same meaning as “facility” in section 520(g) of the act.

(f) Institutional review board (IRB) means any board, committee, or other group formally designated by an institution to review biomedical research involving subjects and established, operated, and functioning in conformance with part 56. The term has the same meaning as “institutional review committee” in section 520(g) of the act.

(g) Investigational device means a device, including a transitional device, that is the object of an investigation.

(h) Investigation means a clinical investigation or research involving one or more subjects to determine the safety or effectiveness of a device.

(i) Investigator means an individual who actually conducts a clinical investigation, i.e., under whose immediate direction the test article is administered or dispensed to, or used involving, a subject, or, in the event of an investigation conducted by a team of individuals, is the responsible leader of that team.

(j) Monitor, when used as a noun, means an individual designated by a sponsor or contract research organization to oversee the progress of an investigation. The monitor may be an employee of a sponsor or a consultant to the sponsor, or an employee of or consultant to a contract research organization. Monitor, when used as a verb, means to oversee an investigation.

(k) Noninvasive, when applied to a diagnostic device or procedure, means one that does not by design or intention: (1) Penetrate or pierce the skin or mucous membranes of the body, the ocular cavity, or the urethra, or (2) enter the ear beyond the external auditory canal, the nose beyond the nares, the mouth beyond the pharynx, the anal canal beyond the rectum, or the vagina beyond the cervical os. For purposes of this part, blood sampling that involves simple venipuncture is considered noninvasive, and the use of surplus samples of body fluids or tissues that are left over from samples taken for noninvestigational purposes is also considered noninvasive.

(l) Person includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, scientific or academic establishment, Government agency or organizational unit of a Government agency, and any other legal entity.

(m) Significant risk device means an investigational device that:

(1) Is intended as an implant and presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject;

(2) Is purported or represented to be for a use in supporting or sustaining human life and presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject;

(3) Is for a use of substantial importance in diagnosing, curing, mitigating, or treating disease, or otherwise preventing impairment of human health and presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject; or

(4) Otherwise presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject.

(n) Sponsor means a person who initiates, but who does not actually conduct, the investigation, that is, the investigational device is administered, dispensed, or used under the immediate direction of another individual. A person other than an individual that uses one or more of its own employees to conduct an investigation that it has initiated is a sponsor, not a sponsor-investigator, and the employees are investigators.

(o) Sponsor-investigator means an individual who both initiates and actually conducts, alone or with others, an investigation, that is, under whose immediate direction the investigational device is administered, dispensed, or used. The term does not include any person other than an individual. The obligations of a sponsor-investigator under this part include those of an investigator and those of a sponsor.

(p) Subject means a human who participates in an investigation, either as an individual on whom or on whose specimen an investigational device is used or as a control. A subject may be in normal health or may have a medical condition or disease.

(q) Termination means a discontinuance, by sponsor or by withdrawal of IRB or FDA approval, of an investigation before completion.

(r) Transitional device means a device subject to section 520(l) of the act, that is, a device that FDA considered to be a new drug or an antibiotic drug before May 28, 1976.

(s) Unanticipated adverse device effect means any serious adverse effect on health or safety or any life-threatening problem or death caused by, or associated with, a device, if that effect, problem, or death was not previously identified in nature, severity, or degree of incidence in the investigational plan or application (including a supplementary plan or application), or any other unanticipated serious problem associated with a device that relates to the rights, safety, or welfare of subjects.

(t) Independent ethics committee (IEC) means an independent review panel that is responsible for ensuring the protection of the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects involved in a clinical investigation and is adequately constituted to ensure that protection. An institutional review board (IRB), as defined in paragraph (f) of this section and subject to the requirements of part 56 of this chapter, is one type of IEC.

(a) Contents. An investigational device or its immediate package shall bear a label with the following information: the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor (in accordance with § 801.1), the quantity of contents, if appropriate, and the following statement: “CAUTION - Investigational device. Limited by Federal (or United States) law to investigational use.” The label or other labeling shall describe all relevant contraindications, hazards, adverse effects, interfering substances or devices, warnings, and precautions.

(b) Prohibitions. The labeling of an investigational device shall not bear any statement that is false or misleading in any particular and shall not represent that the device is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is being investigated.

(c) Animal research. An investigational device shipped solely for research on or with laboratory animals shall bear on its label the following statement: “CAUTION - Device for investigational use in laboratory animals or other tests that do not involve human subjects.”

(d) The appropriate FDA Center Director, according to the procedures set forth in § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter, may grant an exception or alternative to the provisions in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, to the extent that these provisions are not explicitly required by statute, for specified lots, batches, or other units of a device that are or will be included in the Strategic National Stockpile.

A sponsor, investigator, or any person acting for or on behalf of a sponsor or investigator shall not:

(a) Promote or test market an investigational device, until after FDA has approved the device for commercial distribution.

(b) Commercialize an investigational device by charging the subjects or investigators for a device a price larger than that necessary to recover costs of manufacture, research, development, and handling.

(c) Unduly prolong an investigation. If data developed by the investigation indicate in the case of a class III device that premarket approval cannot be justified or in the case of a class II device that it will not comply with an applicable performance standard or an amendment to that standard, the sponsor shall promptly terminate the investigation.

(d) Represent that an investigational device is safe or effective for the purposes for which it is being investigated.

(a) Request. A sponsor may request FDA to waive any requirement of this part. A waiver request, with supporting documentation, may be submitted separately or as part of an application to the address in § 812.19.

(b) FDA action. FDA may by letter grant a waiver of any requirement that FDA finds is not required by the act and is unnecessary to protect the rights, safety, or welfare of human subjects.

(c) Effect of request. Any requirement shall continue to apply unless and until FDA waives it.

(a) Imports. In addition to complying with other requirements of this part, a person who imports or offers for importation an investigational device subject to this part shall be the agent of the foreign exporter with respect to investigations of the device and shall act as the sponsor of the clinical investigation, or ensure that another person acts as the agent of the foreign exporter and the sponsor of the investigation.

(b) Exports. A person exporting an investigational device subject to this part shall obtain FDA's prior approval, as required by section 801(e) of the act or comply with section 802 of the act.

(a) If you are sending an application, supplemental application, report, request for waiver, request for import or export approval, or other correspondence relating to matters covered by this part, you must send the submission to the appropriate address as follows:

(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send it to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.

(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send it to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm.

(3) For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send it to Central Document Control Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.

(b) You must state on the outside wrapper of each submission what the submission is, for example, an “IDE application,” a “supplemental IDE application,” or a “correspondence concerning an IDE (or an IDE application).”

(a) Submission. (1) A sponsor shall submit an application to FDA if the sponsor intends to use a significant risk device in an investigation, intends to conduct an investigation that involves an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, or if FDA notifies the sponsor that an application is required for an investigation.

(2) A sponsor shall not begin an investigation for which FDA's approval of an application is required until FDA has approved the application.

(3) A sponsor shall submit a signed “Application for an Investigational Device Exemption” (IDE application), together with accompanying materials in electronic format, to one of the addresses in § 812.19, and if eCopy by registered mail or by hand. Subsequent correspondence concerning an application or a supplemental application shall be submitted in electronic format and if eCopy by registered mail or by hand.

(4)(i) A sponsor shall submit a separate IDE for any clinical investigation involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Such a clinical investigation is not permitted to proceed without the prior written authorization of FDA. FDA shall provide a written determination 30 days after FDA receives the IDE or earlier.

(ii) If the investigation involves an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, the sponsor shall prominently identify on the cover sheet that the investigation is subject to the requirements in § 50.24 of this chapter.

(b) Contents. An IDE application shall include, in the following order:

(1) The name and address of the sponsor.

(2) A complete report of prior investigations of the device and an accurate summary of those sections of the investigational plan described in § 812.25(a) through (e) or, in lieu of the summary, the complete plan. The sponsor shall submit to FDA a complete investigational plan and a complete report of prior investigations of the device if no IRB has reviewed them, if FDA has found an IRB's review inadequate, or if FDA requests them.

(3) A description of the methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacture, processing, packing, storage, and, where appropriate, installation of the device, in sufficient detail so that a person generally familiar with good manufacturing practices can make a knowledgeable judgment about the quality control used in the manufacture of the device.

(4) An example of the agreements to be entered into by all investigators to comply with investigator obligations under this part, and a list of the names and addresses of all investigators who have signed the agreement.

(5) A certification that all investigators who will participate in the investigation have signed the agreement, that the list of investigators includes all the investigators participating in the investigation, and that no investigators will be added to the investigation until they have signed the agreement.

(6) A list of the name, address, and chairperson of each IRB that has been or will be asked to review the investigation and a certification of the action concerning the investigation taken by each such IRB.

(7) The name and address of any institution at which a part of the investigation may be conducted that has not been identified in accordance with paragraph (b)(6) of this section.

(8) If the device is to be sold, the amount to be charged and an explanation of why sale does not constitute commercialization of the device.

(9) A claim for categorical exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.34 or an environmental assessment under § 25.40.

(10) Copies of all labeling for the device.

(11) Copies of all forms and informational materials to be provided to subjects to obtain informed consent.

(12) Any other relevant information FDA requests for review of the application.

(c) Additional information. FDA may request additional information concerning an investigation or revision in the investigational plan. The sponsor may treat such a request as a disapproval of the application for purposes of requesting a hearing under part 16.

(d) Information previously submitted. Information previously submitted to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as applicable, in accordance with this chapter ordinarily need not be resubmitted, but may be incorporated by reference.

The investigational plan shall include, in the following order:

(a) Purpose. The name and intended use of the device and the objectives and duration of the investigation.

(b) Protocol. A written protocol describing the methodology to be used and an analysis of the protocol demonstrating that the investigation is scientifically sound.

(c) Risk analysis. A description and analysis of all increased risks to which subjects will be exposed by the investigation; the manner in which these risks will be minimized; a justification for the investigation; and a description of the patient population, including the number, age, sex, and condition.

(d) Description of device. A description of each important component, ingredient, property, and principle of operation of the device and of each anticipated change in the device during the course of the investigation.

(e) Monitoring procedures. The sponsor's written procedures for monitoring the investigation and the name and address of any monitor.

(f) Labeling. Copies of all labeling for the device.

(g) Consent materials. Copies of all forms and informational materials to be provided to subjects to obtain informed consent.

(h) IRB information. A list of the names, locations, and chairpersons of all IRB's that have been or will be asked to review the investigation, and a certification of any action taken by any of those IRB's with respect to the investigation.

(i) Other institutions. The name and address of each institution at which a part of the investigation may be conducted that has not been identified in paragraph (h) of this section.

(j) Additional records and reports. A description of records and reports that will be maintained on the investigation in addition to those prescribed in subpart G.

(a) General. The report of prior investigations shall include reports of all prior clinical, animal, and laboratory testing of the device and shall be comprehensive and adequate to justify the proposed investigation.

(b) Specific contents. The report also shall include:

(1) A bibliography of all publications, whether adverse or supportive, that are relevant to an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device, copies of all published and unpublished adverse information, and, if requested by an IRB or FDA, copies of other significant publications.

(2) A summary of all other unpublished information (whether adverse or supportive) in the possession of, or reasonably obtainable by, the sponsor that is relevant to an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device.

(3) If information on nonclinical laboratory studies is provided, a statement that all such studies have been conducted in compliance with applicable requirements in the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58, or if any such study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with this requirement does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant nonclinical test study.

(4)(i) If data from clinical investigations conducted in the United States are provided, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with applicable requirements in the protection of human subjects regulations in part 50 of this chapter, the institutional review boards regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and the investigational device exemptions regulations in this part, or if any such investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.

(ii) If data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States are provided to support the IDE, the requirements under § 812.28 apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a), the report of prior investigations shall include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.

(a) Acceptance of data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission (an application under section 515 or 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a premarket notification submission under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or a request for De Novo classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act). FDA will accept information on a clinical investigation conducted outside the United States to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission if the investigation is well-designed and well-conducted and the following conditions are met:

(1) A statement is provided that the investigation was conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP). For the purposes of this section, GCP is defined as a standard for the design, conduct, performance, monitoring, auditing, recording, analysis, and reporting of clinical investigations in a way that provides assurance that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects are protected. GCP includes review and approval (or provision of a favorable opinion) by an independent ethics committee (IEC) before initiating an investigation, continuing review of an ongoing investigation by an IEC, and obtaining and documenting the freely given informed consent of the subject (or a subject's legally authorized representative, if the subject is unable to provide informed consent) before initiating an investigation. GCP does not require informed consent in life-threatening situations when the IEC reviewing the investigation finds, before initiation of the investigation, that informed consent is not feasible and either that the conditions present are consistent with those described in § 50.23 or § 50.24(a) of this chapter, or that the measures described in the protocol or elsewhere will protect the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects.

(2) In addition to the information required elsewhere in parts 807, 812, and 814 of this chapter, as applicable, the information in paragraph (b) of this section is submitted, as follows:

(i) For an investigation of a significant risk device, as defined in § 812.3(m), the supporting information as described in paragraph (b) of this section is submitted.

(ii) For an investigation of a device, other than a significant risk device, the supporting information as described in paragraphs (b)(1), (4), (5), (7) through (9), and (11) of this section is submitted, and the supporting information as described in paragraph (b)(10) of this section and the rationale for determining the investigation is of a device other than a significant risk device are made available for agency review upon request by FDA.

(iii) For a device investigation that meets the exemption criteria in § 812.2(c), the supporting information as described in paragraphs (b)(1), (4), (5), (7) through (11) of this section and the rationale for determining the investigation meets the exemption criteria in § 812.2(c) are made available for agency review upon request by FDA.

(3) FDA is able to validate the data from the investigation through an onsite inspection, or through other appropriate means, if the agency deems it necessary.

(b) Supporting information. A sponsor or applicant who submits data from a clinical investigation conducted outside the United States to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission, in addition to information required elsewhere in parts 807, 812, and 814 of this chapter, as applicable, shall provide a description of the actions the sponsor or applicant took to ensure that the research conformed to GCP as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The description is not required to duplicate information already submitted in the application or submission. Instead, the description must provide either the following information, as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or a cross-reference to another section of the application or submission where the information is located:

(1) The names of the investigators and the names and addresses of the research facilities and sites where records relating to the investigation are maintained;

(2) The investigator's qualifications;

(3) A description of the research facility(ies);

(4) A detailed summary of the protocol and results of the investigation and, should FDA request, case records maintained by the investigator or additional background data such as hospital or other institutional records;

(5) Either a statement that the device used in the investigation conducted outside the United States is identical to the device that is the subject of the submission or application, or a detailed description of the device and each important component (including all materials and specifications), ingredient, property, and principle of operation of the device used in the investigation conducted outside the United States and a comparison to the device that is the subject of the submission or application that indicates how the device used in the investigation is similar to and/or different from the device that is the subject of the submission or application;

(6) If the investigation is intended to support the safety and effectiveness of a device, a discussion demonstrating that the data and information constitute valid scientific evidence within the meaning of § 860.7 of this chapter;

(7) The name and address of the IEC that reviewed the investigation and a statement that the IEC meets the definition in § 812.3(t). The sponsor or applicant must maintain records supporting such statement, including records describing the qualifications of IEC members, and make these records available for agency review upon request;

(8) A summary of the IEC's decision to approve or modify and approve the investigation, or to provide a favorable opinion;

(9) A description of how informed consent was obtained;

(10) A description of what incentives, if any, were provided to subjects to participate in the investigation;

(11) A description of how the sponsor(s) monitored the investigation and ensured that the investigation was carried out consistently with the protocol; and

(12) A description of how investigators were trained to comply with GCP (as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) and to conduct the investigation in accordance with the protocol, and a statement on whether written commitments by investigators to comply with GCP and the protocol were obtained. Any signed written commitments by investigators must be maintained by the sponsor or applicant and made available for agency review upon request.

(c) Waivers. (1) A sponsor or applicant may ask FDA to waive any applicable requirements under paragraphs (a)(1) and (b) of this section. A waiver request may be submitted in an IDE or in an amendment or supplement to an IDE, in a device marketing application or submission (an application under section 515 or 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a premarket notification submission under section 510(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or a request for De Novo classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act) or in an amendment or supplement to a device marketing application or submission, or in a pre-submission. A waiver request is required to contain at least one of the following:

(i) An explanation why the sponsor's or applicant's compliance with the requirement is unnecessary or cannot be achieved;

(ii) A description of an alternative submission or course of action that satisfies the purpose of the requirement; or

(iii) Other information justifying a waiver.

(2) FDA may grant a waiver if it finds that doing so would be in the interest of the public health.

(d) Records. A sponsor or applicant must retain the records required by this section for a clinical investigation conducted outside the United States as follows:

(1) If the investigation is submitted in support of an IDE, for 2 years after the termination or completion of the IDE; and

(2) If the investigation is submitted in support of a premarket approval application, a notice of completion of a product development protocol, a humanitarian device exemption application, a premarket notification submission, or a request for De Novo classification, for 2 years after an agency decision on that submission or application.

(e) Clinical investigations conducted outside of the United States that do not meet conditions. For clinical investigations conducted outside the United States that do not meet the conditions under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA may accept the information from such clinical investigations to support an IDE or a device marketing application or submission if FDA believes that the data and results from such clinical investigation are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected.

(a) Approval or disapproval. FDA will notify the sponsor in writing of the date it receives an application. FDA may approve an investigation as proposed, approve it with modifications, or disapprove it. An investigation may not begin until:

(1) Thirty days after FDA receives the application at the address in § 812.19 for the investigation of a device other than a banned device, unless FDA notifies the sponsor that the investigation may not begin; or

(2) FDA approves, by order, an IDE for the investigation.

(b) Grounds for disapproval or withdrawal. FDA may disapprove or withdraw approval of an application if FDA finds that:

(1) There has been a failure to comply with any requirement of this part or the act, any other applicable regulation or statute, or any condition of approval imposed by an IRB or FDA.

(2) The application or a report contains an untrue statement of a material fact, or omits material information required by this part.

(3) The sponsor fails to respond to a request for additional information within the time prescribed by FDA.

(4) There is reason to believe that the risks to the subjects are not outweighed by the anticipated benefits to the subjects and the importance of the knowledge to be gained, or informed consent is inadequate, or the investigation is scientifically unsound, or there is reason to believe that the device as used is ineffective.

(5) It is otherwise unreasonable to begin or to continue the investigation owing to the way in which the device is used or the inadequacy of:

(i) The report of prior investigations or the investigational plan;

(ii) The methods, facilities, and controls used for the manufacturing, processing, packaging, storage, and, where appropriate, installation of the device; or

(iii) Monitoring and review of the investigation.

(c) Notice of disapproval or withdrawal. If FDA disapproves an application or proposes to withdraw approval of an application, FDA will notify the sponsor in writing.

(1) A disapproval order will contain a complete statement of the reasons for disapproval and a statement that the sponsor has an opportunity to request a hearing under part 16.

(2) A notice of a proposed withdrawal of approval will contain a complete statement of the reasons for withdrawal and a statement that the sponsor has an opportunity to request a hearing under part 16. FDA will provide the opportunity for hearing before withdrawal of approval, unless FDA determines in the notice that continuation of testing under the exemption will result in an unreasonble risk to the public health and orders withdrawal of approval before any hearing.

(a) Changes in investigational plan - (1) Changes requiring prior approval. Except as described in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(4) of this section, a sponsor must obtain approval of a supplemental application under § 812.30(a), and IRB approval when appropriate (see §§ 56.110 and 56.111 of this chapter), prior to implementing a change to an investigational plan. If a sponsor intends to conduct an investigation that involves an exception to informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter, the sponsor shall submit a separate investigational device exemption (IDE) application in accordance with § 812.20(a).

(2) Changes effected for emergency use. The requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section regarding FDA approval of a supplement do not apply in the case of a deviation from the investigational plan to protect the life or physical well-being of a subject in an emergency. Such deviation shall be reported to FDA within 5-working days after the sponsor learns of it (see § 812.150(a)(4)).

(3) Changes effected with notice to FDA within 5 days. A sponsor may make certain changes without prior approval of a supplemental application under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the sponsor determines that these changes meet the criteria described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(ii) of this section, on the basis of credible information defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, and the sponsor provides notice to FDA within 5-working days of making these changes.

(i) Developmental changes. The requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section regarding FDA approval of a supplement do not apply to developmental changes in the device (including manufacturing changes) that do not constitute a significant change in design or basic principles of operation and that are made in response to information gathered during the course of an investigation.

(ii) Changes to clinical protocol. The requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section regarding FDA approval of a supplement do not apply to changes to clinical protocols that do not affect:

(A) The validity of the data or information resulting from the completion of the approved protocol, or the relationship of likely patient risk to benefit relied upon to approve the protocol;

(B) The scientific soundness of the investigational plan; or

(C) The rights, safety, or welfare of the human subjects involved in the investigation.

(iii) Definition of credible information. (A) Credible information to support developmental changes in the device (including manufacturing changes) includes data generated under the design control procedures of § 820.30, preclinical/animal testing, peer reviewed published literature, or other reliable information such as clinical information gathered during a trial or marketing.

(B) Credible information to support changes to clinical protocols is defined as the sponsor's documentation supporting the conclusion that a change does not have a significant impact on the study design or planned statistical analysis, and that the change does not affect the rights, safety, or welfare of the subjects. Documentation shall include information such as peer reviewed published literature, the recommendation of the clinical investigator(s), and/or the data gathered during the clinical trial or marketing.

(iv) Notice of IDE change. Changes meeting the criteria in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(ii) of this section that are supported by credible information as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section may be made without prior FDA approval if the sponsor submits a notice of the change to the IDE not later than 5-working days after making the change. Changes to devices are deemed to occur on the date the device, manufactured incorporating the design or manufacturing change, is distributed to the investigator(s). Changes to a clinical protocol are deemed to occur when a clinical investigator is notified by the sponsor that the change should be implemented in the protocol or, for sponsor-investigator studies, when a sponsor-investigator incorporates the change in the protocol. Such notices shall be identified as a “notice of IDE change.”

(A) For a developmental or manufacturing change to the device, the notice shall include a summary of the relevant information gathered during the course of the investigation upon which the change was based; a description of the change to the device or manufacturing process (cross-referenced to the appropriate sections of the original device description or manufacturing process); and, if design controls were used to assess the change, a statement that no new risks were identified by appropriate risk analysis and that the verification and validation testing, as appropriate, demonstrated that the design outputs met the design input requirements. If another method of assessment was used, the notice shall include a summary of the information which served as the credible information supporting the change.

(B) For a protocol change, the notice shall include a description of the change (cross-referenced to the appropriate sections of the original protocol); an assessment supporting the conclusion that the change does not have a significant impact on the study design or planned statistical analysis; and a summary of the information that served as the credible information supporting the sponsor's determination that the change does not affect the rights, safety, or welfare of the subjects.

(4) Changes submitted in annual report. The requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply to minor changes to the purpose of the study, risk analysis, monitoring procedures, labeling, informed consent materials, and IRB information that do not affect:

(i) The validity of the data or information resulting from the completion of the approved protocol, or the relationship of likely patient risk to benefit relied upon to approve the protocol;

(ii) The scientific soundness of the investigational plan; or

(iii) The rights, safety, or welfare of the human subjects involved in the investigation. Such changes shall be reported in the annual progress report for the IDE, under § 812.150(b)(5).

(b) IRB approval for new facilities. A sponsor shall submit to FDA a certification of any IRB approval of an investigation or a part of an investigation not included in the IDE application. If the investigation is otherwise unchanged, the supplemental application shall consist of an updating of the information required by § 812.20(b) and (c) and a description of any modifications in the investigational plan required by the IRB as a condition of approval. A certification of IRB approval need not be included in the initial submission of the supplemental application, and such certification is not a precondition for agency consideration of the application. Nevertheless, a sponsor may not begin a part of an investigation at a facility until the IRB has approved the investigation, FDA has received the certification of IRB approval, and FDA, under § 812.30(a), has approved the supplemental application relating to that part of the investigation (see § 56.103(a)).

(a) General. A device that is not approved for marketing may be under clinical investigation for a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition in patients for whom no comparable or satisfactory alternative device or other therapy is available. During the clinical trial or prior to final action on the marketing application, it may be appropriate to use the device in the treatment of patients not in the trial under the provisions of a treatment investigational device exemption (IDE). The purpose of this section is to facilitate the availability of promising new devices to desperately ill patients as early in the device development process as possible, before general marketing begins, and to obtain additional data on the device's safety and effectiveness. In the case of a serious disease, a device ordinarily may be made available for treatment use under this section after all clinical trials have been completed. In the case of an immediately life-threatening disease, a device may be made available for treatment use under this section prior to the completion of all clinical trials. For the purpose of this section, an “immediately life-threatening” disease means a stage of a disease in which there is a reasonable likelihood that death will occur within a matter of months or in which premature death is likely without early treatment. For purposes of this section, “treatment use”of a device includes the use of a device for diagnostic purposes.

(b) Criteria. FDA shall consider the use of an investigational device under a treatment IDE if:

(1) The device is intended to treat or diagnose a serious or immediately life-threatening disease or condition;

(2) There is no comparable or satisfactory alternative device or other therapy available to treat or diagnose that stage of the disease or condition in the intended patient population;

(3) The device is under investigation in a controlled clinical trial for the same use under an approved IDE, or such clinical trials have been completed; and

(4) The sponsor of the investigation is actively pursuing marketing approval/clearance of the investigational device with due diligence.

(c) Applications for treatment use. (1) A treatment IDE application shall include, in the following order:

(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the sponsor of the treatment IDE;

(ii) The intended use of the device, the criteria for patient selection, and a written protocol describing the treatment use;

(iii) An explanation of the rationale for use of the device, including, as appropriate, either a list of the available regimens that ordinarily should be tried before using the investigational device or an explanation of why the use of the investigational device is preferable to the use of available marketed treatments;

(iv) A description of clinical procedures, laboratory tests, or other measures that will be used to evaluate the effects of the device and to minimize risk;

(v) Written procedures for monitoring the treatment use and the name and address of the monitor;

(vi) Instructions for use for the device and all other labeling as required under § 812.5(a) and (b);

(vii) Information that is relevant to the safety and effectiveness of the device for the intended treatment use. Information from other IDE's may be incorporated by reference to support the treatment use;

(viii) A statement of the sponsor's commitment to meet all applicable responsibilities under this part and part 56 of this chapter and to ensure compliance of all participating investigators with the informed consent requirements of part 50 of this chapter;

(ix) An example of the agreement to be signed by all investigators participating in the treatment IDE and certification that no investigator will be added to the treatment IDE before the agreement is signed; and

(x) If the device is to be sold, the price to be charged and a statement indicating that the price is based on manufacturing and handling costs only.

(2) A licensed practitioner who receives an investigational device for treatment use under a treatment IDE is an “investigator” under the IDE and is responsible for meeting all applicable investigator responsibilities under this part and parts 50 and 56 of this chapter.

(d) FDA action on treatment IDE applications - (1) Approval of treatment IDE's. Treatment use may begin 30 days after FDA receives the treatment IDE submission at the address specified in § 812.19, unless FDA notifies the sponsor in writing earlier than the 30 days that the treatment use may or may not begin. FDA may approve the treatment use as proposed or approve it with modifications.

(2) Disapproval or withdrawal of approval of treatment IDE's. FDA may disapprove or withdraw approval of a treatment IDE if:

(i) The criteria specified in § 812.36(b) are not met or the treatment IDE does not contain the information required in § 812.36(c);

(ii) FDA determines that any of the grounds for disapproval or withdrawal of approval listed in § 812.30(b)(1) through (b)(5) apply;

(iii) The device is intended for a serious disease or condition and there is insufficient evidence of safety and effectiveness to support such use;

(iv) The device is intended for an immediately life-threatening disease or condition and the available scientific evidence, taken as a whole, fails to provide a reasonable basis for concluding that the device:

(A) May be effective for its intended use in its intended population; or

(B) Would not expose the patients to whom the device is to be administered to an unreasonable and significant additional risk of illness or injury;

(v) There is reasonable evidence that the treatment use is impeding enrollment in, or otherwise interfering with the conduct or completion of, a controlled investigation of the same or another investigational device;

(vi) The device has received marketing approval/clearance or a comparable device or therapy becomes available to treat or diagnose the same indication in the same patient population for which the investigational device is being used;

(vii) The sponsor of the controlled clinical trial is not pursuing marketing approval/clearance with due diligence;

(viii) Approval of the IDE for the controlled clinical investigation of the device has been withdrawn; or

(ix) The clinical investigator(s) named in the treatment IDE are not qualified by reason of their scientific training and/or experience to use the investigational device for the intended treatment use.

(3) Notice of disapproval or withdrawal. If FDA disapproves or proposes to withdraw approval of a treatment IDE, FDA will follow the procedures set forth in § 812.30(c).

(e) Safeguards. Treatment use of an investigational device is conditioned upon the sponsor and investigators complying with the safeguards of the IDE process and the regulations governing informed consent (part 50 of this chapter) and institutional review boards (part 56 of this chapter).

(f) Reporting requirements. The sponsor of a treatment IDE shall submit progress reports on a semi-annual basis to all reviewing IRB's and FDA until the filing of a marketing application. These reports shall be based on the period of time since initial approval of the treatment IDE and shall include the number of patients treated with the device under the treatment IDE, the names of the investigators participating in the treatment IDE, and a brief description of the sponsor's efforts to pursue marketing approval/clearance of the device. Upon filing of a marketing application, progress reports shall be submitted annually in accordance with § 812.150(b)(5). The sponsor of a treatment IDE is responsible for submitting all other reports required under § 812.150.

(a) Existence of IDE. FDA will not disclose the existence of an IDE unless its existence has previously been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, until FDA approves an application for premarket approval of the device subject to the IDE; or a notice of completion of a product development protocol for the device has become effective.

(b) Availability of summaries or data. (1) FDA will make publicly available, upon request, a detailed summary of information concerning the safety and effectiveness of the device that was the basis for an order approving, disapproving, or withdrawing approval of an application for an IDE for a banned device. The summary shall include information on any adverse effect on health caused by the device.

(2) If a device is a banned device or if the existence of an IDE has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, data or information contained in the file is not available for public disclosure before approval of an application for premarket approval or the effective date of a notice of completion of a product development protocol except as provided in this section. FDA may, in its discretion, disclose a summary of selected portions of the safety and effectiveness data, that is, clinical, animal, or laboratory studies and tests of the device, for public consideration of a specific pending issue.

(3) If the existence of an IDE file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, no data or information in the file are available for public disclosure except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c) of this section.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, FDA will make available to the public, upon request, the information in the IDE that was required to be filed in Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Persons wishing to request this information shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.

(c) Reports of adverse effects. Upon request or on its own initiative, FDA shall disclose to an individual on whom an investigational device has been used a copy of a report of adverse device effects relating to that use.

(d) Other rules. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the availability for public disclosure of data and information in an IDE file shall be handled in accordance with § 814.9.

Sponsors are responsible for selecting qualified investigators and providing them with the information they need to conduct the investigation properly, ensuring proper monitoring of the investigation, ensuring that IRB review and approval are obtained, submitting an IDE application to FDA, and ensuring that any reviewing IRB and FDA are promptly informed of significant new information about an investigation. Additional responsibilities of sponsors are described in subparts B and G.

A sponsor shall not begin an investigation or part of an investigation until an IRB and FDA have both approved the application or supplemental application relating to the investigation or part of an investigation.

(a) Selecting investigators. A sponsor shall select investigators qualified by training and experience to investigate the device.

(b) Control of device. A sponsor shall ship investigational devices only to qualified investigators participating in the investigation.

(c) Obtaining agreements. A sponsor shall obtain from each participating investigator a signed agreement that includes:

(1) The investigator's curriculum vitae.

(2) Where applicable, a statement of the investigator's relevant experience, including the dates, location, extent, and type of experience.

(3) If the investigator was involved in an investigation or other research that was terminated, an explanation of the circumstances that led to termination.

(4) A statement of the investigator's commitment to:

(i) Conduct the investigation in accordance with the agreement, the investigational plan, this part and other applicable FDA regulations, and conditions of approval imposed by the reviewing IRB or FDA;

(ii) Supervise all testing of the device involving human subjects; and

(iii) Ensure that the requirements for obtaining informed consent are met.

(5) Sufficient accurate financial disclosure information to allow the sponsor to submit a complete and accurate certification or disclosure statement as required under part 54 of this chapter. The sponsor shall obtain a commitment from the clinical investigator to promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur during the course of the investigation and for 1 year following completion of the study. This information shall not be submitted in an investigational device exemption application, but shall be submitted in any marketing application involving the device.

(d) Selecting monitors. A sponsor shall select monitors qualified by training and experience to monitor the investigational study in accordance with this part and other applicable FDA regulations.

A sponsor shall supply all investigators participating in the investigation with copies of the investigational plan and the report of prior investigations of the device.

(a) Securing compliance. A sponsor who discovers that an investigator is not complying with the signed agreement, the investigational plan, the requirements of this part or other applicable FDA regulations, or any conditions of approval imposed by the reviewing IRB or FDA shall promptly either secure compliance, or discontinue shipments of the device to the investigator and terminate the investigator's participation in the investigation. A sponsor shall also require such an investigator to dispose of or return the device, unless this action would jeopardize the rights, safety, or welfare of a subject.

(b) Unanticipated adverse device effects. (1) A sponsor shall immediately conduct an evaluation of any unanticipated adverse device effect.

(2) A sponsor who determines that an unanticipated adverse device effect presents an unreasonable risk to subjects shall terminate all investigations or parts of investigations presenting that risk as soon as possible. Termination shall occur not later than 5 working days after the sponsor makes this determination and not later than 15 working days after the sponsor first received notice of the effect.

(c) Resumption of terminated studies. If the device is a significant risk device, a sponsor may not resume a terminated investigation without IRB and FDA approval. If the device is not a significant risk device, a sponsor may not resume a terminated investigation without IRB approval and, if the investigation was terminated under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, FDA approval.

(a) The sponsor shall monitor the progress of all investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. When the sponsor receives from the IRB information concerning the public disclosures under § 50.24(a)(7)(ii) and (a)(7)(iii) of this chapter, the sponsor shall promptly submit to the IDE file and to Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, copies of the information that was disclosed, identified by the IDE number.

(b) The sponsor also shall monitor such investigations to determine when an IRB determines that it cannot approve the research because it does not meet the criteria in the exception in § 50.24(a) of this chapter or because of other relevant ethical concerns. The sponsor promptly shall provide this information in writing to FDA, investigators who are asked to participate in this or a substantially equivalent clinical investigation, and other IRB's that are asked to review this or a substantially equivalent investigation.

An IRB reviewing and approving investigations under this part shall comply with the requirements of part 56 in all respects, including its composition, duties, and functions.

(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all investigations covered by this part.

(b) If no IRB exists or if FDA finds that an IRB's review is inadequate, a sponsor may submit an application to FDA.

The IRB shall conduct its continuing review of an investigation in accordance with part 56.

If an IRB determines that an investigation, presented for approval under § 812.2(b)(1)(ii), involves a significant risk device, it shall so notify the investigator and, where appropriate, the sponsor. A sponsor may not begin the investigation except as provided in § 812.30(a).

An investigator is responsible for ensuring that an investigation is conducted according to the signed agreement, the investigational plan and applicable FDA regulations, for protecting the rights, safety, and welfare of subjects under the investigator's care, and for the control of devices under investigation. An investigator also is responsible for ensuring that informed consent is obtained in accordance with part 50 of this chapter. Additional responsibilities of investigators are described in subpart G.

(a) Awaiting approval. An investigator may determine whether potential subjects would be interested in participating in an investigation, but shall not request the written informed consent of any subject to participate, and shall not allow any subject to participate before obtaining IRB and FDA approval.

(b) Compliance. An investigator shall conduct an investigation in accordance with the signed agreement with the sponsor, the investigational plan, this part and other applicable FDA regulations, and any conditions of approval imposed by an IRB or FDA.

(c) Supervising device use. An investigator shall permit an investigational device to be used only with subjects under the investigator's supervision. An investigator shall not supply an investigational device to any person not authorized under this part to receive it.

(d) Financial disclosure. A clinical investigator shall disclose to the sponsor sufficient accurate financial information to allow the applicant to submit complete and accurate certification or disclosure statements required under part 54 of this chapter. The investigator shall promptly update this information if any relevant changes occur during the course of the investigation and for 1 year following completion of the study.

(e) Disposing of device. Upon completion or termination of a clinical investigation or the investigator's part of an investigation, or at the sponsor's request, an investigator shall return to the sponsor any remaining supply of the device or otherwise dispose of the device as the sponsor directs.

(a) If FDA has information indicating that an investigator (including a sponsor-investigator) has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the requirements of this part, part 50, or part 56 of this chapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research will furnish the investigator written notice of the matter complained of and offer the investigator an opportunity to explain the matter in writing, or, at the option of the investigator, in an informal conference. If an explanation is offered and accepted by the applicable Center, the Center will discontinue the disqualification proceeding. If an explanation is offered but not accepted by the applicable Center, the investigator will be given an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter on the question of whether the investigator is eligible to receive test articles under this part and eligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA.

(b) After evaluating all available information, including any explanation presented by the investigator, if the Commissioner determines that the investigator has repeatedly or deliberately failed to comply with the requirements of this part, part 50, or part 56 of this chapter, or has repeatedly or deliberately submitted to FDA or to the sponsor false information in any required report, the Commissioner will notify the investigator, the sponsor of any investigation in which the investigator has been named as a participant, and the reviewing investigational review boards (IRBs) that the investigator is not eligible to receive test articles under this part. The notification to the investigator, sponsor and IRBs will provide a statement of the basis for such determination. The notification also will explain that an investigator determined to be ineligible to receive test articles under this part will be ineligible to conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, including drugs, biologics, devices, new animal drugs, foods, including dietary supplements, that bear a nutrient content claim or a health claim, infant formulas, food and color additives, and tobacco products.

(c) Each application or submission to FDA under the provisions of this chapter containing data reported by an investigator who has been determined to be ineligible to receive FDA-regulated test articles is subject to examination to determine whether the investigator has submitted unreliable data that are essential to the continuation of an investigation or essential to the clearance or approval of a marketing application, or essential to the continued marketing of an FDA-regulated product.

(d) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the data remaining are inadequate to support a conclusion that it is reasonably safe to continue the investigation, the Commissioner will notify the sponsor, who shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing under part 16 of this chapter. If a danger to the public health exists, however, the Commissioner shall terminate the investigational device exemption (IDE) immediately and notify the sponsor and the reviewing IRBs of the termination. In such case, the sponsor shall have an opportunity for a regulatory hearing before FDA under part 16 of this chapter on the question of whether the IDE should be reinstated. The determination that an investigation may not be considered in support of a research or marketing application or a notification or petition submission does not, however, relieve the sponsor of any obligation under any other applicable regulation to submit to FDA the results of the investigation.

(e) If the Commissioner determines, after the unreliable data submitted by the investigator are eliminated from consideration, that the continued clearance or approval of the product for which the data were submitted cannot be justified, the Commissioner will proceed to rescind clearance or withdraw approval of the product in accordance with the applicable provisions of the relevant statutes.

(f) An investigator who has been determined to be ineligible under paragraph (b) of this section may be reinstated as eligible when the Commissioner determines that the investigator has presented adequate assurances that the investigator will employ all test articles, and will conduct any clinical investigation that supports an application for a research or marketing permit for products regulated by FDA, solely in compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter.

(a) Investigator records. A participating investigator shall maintain the following accurate, complete, and current records relating to the investigator's participation in an investigation:

(1) All correspondence with another investigator, an IRB, the sponsor, a monitor, or FDA, including required reports.

(2) Records of receipt, use or disposition of a device that relate to:

(i) The type and quantity of the device, the dates of its receipt, and the batch number or code mark.

(ii) The names of all persons who received, used, or disposed of each device.

(iii) Why and how many units of the device have been returned to the sponsor, repaired, or otherwise disposed of.

(3) Records of each subject's case history and exposure to the device. Case histories include the case report forms and supporting data including, for example, signed and dated consent forms and medical records including, for example, progress notes of the physician, the individual's hospital chart(s), and the nurses' notes. Such records shall include:

(i) Documents evidencing informed consent and, for any use of a device by the investigator without informed consent, any written concurrence of a licensed physician and a brief description of the circumstances justifying the failure to obtain informed consent. The case history for each individual shall document that informed consent was obtained prior to participation in the study.

(ii) All relevant observations, including records concerning adverse device effects (whether anticipated or unanticipated), information and data on the condition of each subject upon entering, and during the course of, the investigation, including information about relevant previous medical history and the results of all diagnostic tests.

(iii) A record of the exposure of each subject to the investigational device, including the date and time of each use, and any other therapy.

(4) The protocol, with documents showing the dates of and reasons for each deviation from the protocol.

(5) Any other records that FDA requires to be maintained by regulation or by specific requirement for a category of investigations or a particular investigation.

(b) Sponsor records. A sponsor shall maintain the following accurate, complete, and current records relating to an investigation:

(1) All correspondence with another sponsor, a monitor, an investigator, an IRB, or FDA, including required reports.

(2) Records of shipment and disposition. Records of shipment shall include the name and address of the consignee, type and quantity of device, date of shipment, and batch number or code mark. Records of disposition shall describe the batch number or code marks of any devices returned to the sponsor, repaired, or disposed of in other ways by the investigator or another person, and the reasons for and method of disposal.

(3) Signed investigator agreements including the financial disclosure information required to be collected under § 812.43(c)(5) in accordance with part 54 of this chapter.

(4) For each investigation subject to § 812.2(b)(1) of a device other than a significant risk device, the records described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section and the following records, consolidated in one location and available for FDA inspection and copying:

(i) The name and intended use of the device and the objectives of the investigation;

(ii) A brief explanation of why the device is not a significant risk device:

(iii) The name and address of each investigator:

(iv) The name and address of each IRB that has reviewed the investigation:

(v) A statement of the extent to which the good manufacturing practice regulation in part 820 will be followed in manufacturing the device; and

(vi) Any other information required by FDA.

(5) Records concerning adverse device effects (whether anticipated or unanticipated) and complaints and

(6) Any other records that FDA requires to be maintained by regulation or by specific requirement for a category of investigation or a particular investigation.

(c) IRB records. An IRB shall maintain records in accordance with part 56 of this chapter.

(d) Retention period. An investigator or sponsor shall maintain the records required by this subpart during the investigation and for a period of 2 years after the latter of the following two dates: The date on which the investigation is terminated or completed, or the date that the records are no longer required for purposes of supporting a premarket approval application, a notice of completion of a product development protocol, a humanitarian device exemption application, a premarket notification submission, or a request for De Novo classification.

(e) Records custody. An investigator or sponsor may withdraw from the responsibility to maintain records for the period required in paragraph (d) of this section and transfer custody of the records to any other person who will accept responsibility for them under this part, including the requirements of § 812.145. Notice of a transfer shall be given to FDA not later than 10 working days after transfer occurs.

(a) Entry and inspection. A sponsor or an investigator who has authority to grant access shall permit authorized FDA employees, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, to enter and inspect any establishment where devices are held (including any establishment where devices are manufactured, processed, packed, installed, used, or implanted or where records of results from use of devices are kept).

(b) Records inspection. A sponsor, IRB, or investigator, or any other person acting on behalf of such a person with respect to an investigation, shall permit authorized FDA employees, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, to inspect and copy all records relating to an investigation.

(c) Records identifying subjects. An investigator shall permit authorized FDA employees to inspect and copy records that identify subjects, upon notice that FDA has reason to suspect that adequate informed consent was not obtained, or that reports required to be submitted by the investigator to the sponsor or IRB have not been submitted or are incomplete, inaccurate, false, or misleading.

(a) Investigator reports. An investigator shall prepare and submit the following complete, accurate, and timely reports:

(1) Unanticipated adverse device effects. An investigator shall submit to the sponsor and to the reviewing IRB a report of any unanticipated adverse device effect occurring during an investigation as soon as possible, but in no event later than 10 working days after the investigator first learns of the effect.

(2) Withdrawal of IRB approval. An investigator shall report to the sponsor, within 5 working days, a withdrawal of approval by the reviewing IRB of the investigator's part of an investigation.

(3) Progress. An investigator shall submit progress reports on the investigation to the sponsor, the monitor, and the reviewing IRB at regular intervals, but in no event less often than yearly.

(4) Deviations from the investigational plan. An investigator shall notify the sponsor and the reviewing IRB (see § 56.108(a) (3) and (4)) of any deviation from the investigational plan to protect the life or physical well-being of a subject in an emergency. Such notice shall be given as soon as possible, but in no event later than 5 working days after the emergency occurred. Except in such an emergency, prior approval by the sponsor is required for changes in or deviations from a plan, and if these changes or deviations may affect the scientific soundness of the plan or the rights, safety, or welfare of human subjects, FDA and IRB in accordance with § 812.35(a) also is required.

(5) Informed consent. If an investigator uses a device without obtaining informed consent, the investigator shall report such use to the sponsor and the reviewing IRB within 5 working days after the use occurs.

(6) Final report. An investigator shall, within 3 months after termination or completion of the investigation or the investigator's part of the investigation, submit a final report to the sponsor and the reviewing IRB.

(7) Other. An investigator shall, upon request by a reviewing IRB or FDA, provide accurate, complete, and current information about any aspect of the investigation.

(b) Sponsor reports. A sponsor shall prepare and submit the following complete, accurate, and timely reports:

(1) Unanticipated adverse device effects. A sponsor who conducts an evaluation of an unanticipated adverse device effect under § 812.46(b) shall report the results of such evaluation to FDA and to all reviewing IRB's and participating investigators within 10 working days after the sponsor first receives notice of the effect. Thereafter the sponsor shall submit such additional reports concerning the effect as FDA requests.

(2) Withdrawal of IRB approval. A sponsor shall notify FDA and all reviewing IRB's and participating investigators of any withdrawal of approval of an investigation or a part of an investigation by a reviewing IRB within 5 working days after receipt of the withdrawal of approval.

(3) Withdrawal of FDA approval. A sponsor shall notify all reviewing IRB's and participating investigators of any withdrawal of FDA approval of the investigation, and shall do so within 5 working days after receipt of notice of the withdrawal of approval.

(4) Current investigator list. A sponsor shall submit to FDA, at 6-month intervals, a current list of the names and addresses of all investigators participating in the investigation. The sponsor shall submit the first such list 6 months after FDA approval.

(5) Progress reports. At regular intervals, and at least yearly, a sponsor shall submit progress reports to all reviewing IRB's. In the case of a significant risk device, a sponsor shall also submit progress reports to FDA. A sponsor of a treatment IDE shall submit semi-annual progress reports to all reviewing IRB's and FDA in accordance with § 812.36(f) and annual reports in accordance with this section.

(6) Recall and device disposition. A sponsor shall notify FDA and all reviewing IRB's of any request that an investigator return, repair, or otherwise dispose of any units of a device. Such notice shall occur within 30 working days after the request is made and shall state why the request was made.

(7) Final report. In the case of a significant risk device, the sponsor shall notify FDA within 30 working days of the completion or termination of the investigation and shall submit a final report to FDA and all reviewing the IRB's and participating investigators within 6 months after completion or termination. In the case of a device that is not a significant risk device, the sponsor shall submit a final report to all reviewing IRB's within 6 months after termination or completion.

(8) Informed consent. A sponsor shall submit to FDA a copy of any report by an investigator under paragraph (a)(5) of this section of use of a device without obtaining informed consent, within 5 working days of receipt of notice of such use.

(9) Significant risk device determinations. If an IRB determines that a device is a significant risk device, and the sponsor had proposed that the IRB consider the device not to be a significant risk device, the sponsor shall submit to FDA a report of the IRB's determination within 5 working days after the sponsor first learns of the IRB's determination.

(10) Other. A sponsor shall, upon request by a reviewing IRB or FDA, provide accurate, complete, and current information about any aspect of the investigation.

(a) This section implements sections 515 and 515A of the act by providing procedures for the premarket approval of medical devices intended for human use.

(b) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.

(c) This part applies to any class III medical device, unless exempt under section 520(g) of the act, that:

(1) Was not on the market (introduced or delivered for introduction into commerce for commercial distribution) before May 28, 1976, and is not substantially equivalent to a device on the market before May 28, 1976, or to a device first marketed on, or after that date, which has been classified into class I or class II; or

(2) Is required to have an approved premarket approval application (PMA) or a declared completed product development protocol under a regulation issued under section 515(b) of the act; or

(3) Was regulated by FDA as a new drug or antibiotic drug before May 28, 1976, and therefore is governed by section 520(1) of the act.

(d) This part amends the conditions to approval for any PMA approved before the effective date of this part. Any condition to approval for an approved PMA that is inconsistent with this part is revoked. Any condition to approval for an approved PMA that is consistent with this part remains in effect.

The purpose of this part is to establish an efficient and thorough device review process -

(a) To facilitate the approval of PMA's for devices that have been shown to be safe and effective and that otherwise meet the statutory criteria for approval; and

(b) To ensure the disapproval of PMA's for devices that have not been shown to be safe and effective or that do not otherwise meet the statutory criteria for approval. This part shall be construed in light of these objectives.

For the purposes of this part:

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (sections 201-902, 52 Stat. 1040 et seq., as amended (21 U.S.C. 321-392)).

(b) FDA means the Food and Drug Administration.

(c) IDE means an approved or considered approved investigational device exemption under section 520(g) of the act and parts 812 and 813.

(d) Master file means a reference source that a person submits to FDA. A master file may contain detailed information on a specific manufacturing facility, process, methodology, or component used in the manufacture, processing, or packaging of a medical device.

(e) PMA means any premarket approval application for a class III medical device, including all information submitted with or incorporated by reference therein. “PMA” includes a new drug application for a device under section 520(1) of the act.

(f) PMA amendment means information an applicant submits to FDA to modify a pending PMA or a pending PMA supplement.

(g) PMA supplement means a supplemental application to an approved PMA for approval of a change or modification in a class III medical device, including all information submitted with or incorporated by reference therein.

(h) Person includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, scientific or academic establishment, Government agency, or organizational unit thereof, or any other legal entity.

(i) Statement of material fact means a representation that tends to show that the safety or effectiveness of a device is more probable than it would be in the absence of such a representation. A false affirmation or silence or an omission that would lead a reasonable person to draw a particular conclusion as to the safety or effectiveness of a device also may be a false statement of material fact, even if the statement was not intended by the person making it to be misleading or to have any probative effect.

(j) 30-day PMA supplement means a supplemental application to an approved PMA in accordance with § 814.39(e).

(k) Reasonable probability means that it is more likely than not that an event will occur.

(l) Serious, adverse health consequences means any significant adverse experience, including those which may be either life-threatening or involve permanent or long term injuries, but excluding injuries that are nonlife-threatening and that are temporary and reasonably reversible.

(m) HDE means a premarket approval application submitted pursuant to this subpart seeking a humanitarian device exemption from the effectiveness requirements of sections 514 and 515 of the act as authorized by section 520(m)(2) of the act.

(n) HUD (humanitarian use device) means a medical device intended to benefit patients in the treatment or diagnosis of a disease or condition that affects or is manifested in not more than 8,000 individuals in the United States per year.

(o) Newly acquired information means data, analyses, or other information not previously submitted to the agency, which may include (but are not limited to) data derived from new clinical studies, reports of adverse events, or new analyses of previously submitted data (e.g., meta-analyses) if the studies, events or analyses reveal risks of a different type or greater severity or frequency than previously included in submissions to FDA.

(p) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(q) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

(r) Universal product code (UPC) means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.

(s) Pediatric patients means patients who are 21 years of age or younger (that is, from birth through the twenty-first year of life, up to but not including the twenty-second birthday) at the time of the diagnosis or treatment.

(t) Readily available means available in the public domain through commonly used public resources for conducting biomedical, regulatory, and medical product research.

(a) A “PMA file” includes all data and information submitted with or incorporated by reference in the PMA, any IDE incorporated into the PMA, any PMA supplement, any report under § 814.82, any master file, or any other related submission. Any record in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of this section and part 20. The confidentiality of information in a color additive petition submitted as part of a PMA is governed by § 71.15.

(b) The existence of a PMA file may not be disclosed by FDA before an approval order is issued to the applicant unless it previously has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged.

(c) If the existence of a PMA file has not been publicly disclosed or acknowledged, data or information in the PMA file are not available for public disclosure.

(d)(1) If the existence of a PMA file has been publicly disclosed or acknowledged before an order approving, or an order denying approval of the PMA is issued, data or information contained in the file are not available for public disclosure before such order issues. FDA may, however, disclose a summary of portions of the safety and effectiveness data before an approval order or an order denying approval of the PMA issues if disclosure is relevant to public consideration of a specific pending issue.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, FDA will make available to the public upon request the information in the IDE that was required to be filed in Docket Number 95S-0158 in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., rm. 1-23, Rockville, MD 20857, for investigations involving an exception from informed consent under § 50.24 of this chapter. Persons wishing to request this information shall submit a request under the Freedom of Information Act.

(e) Upon issuance of an order approving, or an order denying approval of any PMA, FDA will make available to the public the fact of the existence of the PMA and a detailed summary of information submitted to FDA respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device that is the subject of the PMA and that is the basis for the order.

(f) After FDA issues an order approving, or an order denying approval of any PMA, the following data and information in the PMA file are immediately available for public disclosure:

(1) All safety and effectiveness data and information previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81.

(2) Any protocol for a test or study unless the protocol is shown to constitute trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61.

(3) Any adverse reaction report, product experience report, consumer complaint, and other similar data and information, after deletion of:

(i) Any information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61; and

(ii) Any personnel, medical, and similar information disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy under § 20.63; provided, however, that except for the information that constitutes trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61, FDA will disclose to a patient who requests a report all the information in the report concerning that patient.

(4) A list of components previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81.

(5) An assay method or other analytical method, unless it does not serve any regulatory purpose and is shown to fall within the exemption in § 20.61 for trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information.

(6) All correspondence and written summaries of oral discussions relating to the PMA file, in accordance with the provisions of §§ 20.103 and 20.104.

(g) All safety and effectiveness data and other information not previously disclosed to the public are available for public disclosure if any one of the following events occurs and the data and information do not constitute trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information under § 20.61:

(1) The PMA has been abandoned. FDA will consider a PMA abandoned if:

(i)(A) The applicant fails to respond to a request for additional information within 180 days after the date FDA issues the request or

(B) Other circumstances indicate that further work is not being undertaken with respect to it, and

(ii) The applicant fails to communicate with FDA within 7 days after the date on which FDA notifies the applicant that the PMA appears to have been abandoned.

(2) An order denying approval of the PMA has issued, and all legal appeals have been exhausted.

(3) An order withdrawing approval of the PMA has issued, and all legal appeals have been exhausted.

(4) The device has been reclassified.

(5) The device has been found to be substantially equivalent to a class I or class II device.

(6) The PMA is considered voluntarily withdrawn under § 814.44(g).

(h) The following data and information in a PMA file are not available for public disclosure unless they have been previously disclosed to the public, as such disclosure is defined in § 20.81, or they relate to a device for which a PMA has been abandoned and they no longer represent a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in § 20.61:

(1) Manufacturing methods or processes, including quality control procedures.

(2) Production, sales, distribution, and similar data and information, except that any compilation of such data and information aggregated and prepared in a way that does not reveal data or information which are not available for public disclosure under this provision is available for public disclosure.

(3) Quantitative or semiquantitative formulas.

(a) Data to support PMA. If data from clinical investigations conducted outside the United States are submitted to support a PMA, the applicant shall comply with the provisions in § 812.28 of this chapter, as applicable.

(b) As sole basis for marketing approval. A PMA based solely on foreign clinical data and otherwise meeting the criteria for approval under this part may be approved if:

(1) The foreign data are applicable to the U.S. population and U.S. medical practice;

(2) The studies have been performed by clinical investigators of recognized competence; and

(3) The data may be considered valid without the need for an on-site inspection by FDA or, if FDA considers such an inspection to be necessary, FDA can validate the data through an on-site inspection or other appropriate means.

(c) Consultation between FDA and applicants. Applicants are encouraged to meet with FDA officials in a “presubmission” meeting when approval based solely on foreign data will be sought.

Orders issued under this part will be served in person by a designated officer or employee of FDA on, or by registered mail to, the applicant or the designated agent at the applicant's or designated agent's last known address in FDA's records.

A class III device for which a product development protocol has been declared completed by FDA under this chapter will be considered to have an approved PMA.

(a) The applicant or an authorized representative shall sign the PMA. If the applicant does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the PMA shall be countersigned by an authorized representative residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States and shall identify the representative's name and address.

(b) Unless the applicant justifies an omission in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, a PMA shall include in electronic format:

(1) The name and address of the applicant.

(2) A table of contents that specifies the volume and page number for each item referred to in the table. A PMA shall include separate sections on nonclinical laboratory studies and on clinical investigations involving human subjects. A PMA shall be submitted as a single version. The applicant shall include information that it believes to be trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information in the PMA and identify the information that it believes to be trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information.

(3) A summary in sufficient detail that the reader may gain a general understanding of the data and information in the application. The summary shall contain the following information:

(i) Indications for use. A general description of the disease or condition the device will diagnose, treat, prevent, cure, or mitigate, including a description of the patient population for which the device is intended.

(ii) Device description. An explanation of how the device functions, the basic scientific concepts that form the basis for the device, and the significant physical and performance characteristics of the device. A brief description of the manufacturing process should be included if it will significantly enhance the reader's understanding of the device. The generic name of the device as well as any proprietary name or trade name should be included.

(iii) Alternative practices and procedures. A description of existing alternative practices or procedures for diagnosing, treating, preventing, curing, or mitigating the disease or condition for which the device is intended.

(iv) Marketing history. A brief description of the foreign and U.S. marketing history, if any, of the device, including a list of all countries in which the device has been marketed and a list of all countries in which the device has been withdrawn from marketing for any reason related to the safety or effectiveness of the device. The description shall include the history of the marketing of the device by the applicant and, if known, the history of the marketing of the device by any other person.

(v) Summary of studies. An abstract of any information or report described in the PMA under paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results of technical data submitted under paragraph (b)(6) of this section. Such summary shall include a description of the objective of the study, a description of the experimental design of the study, a brief description of how the data were collected and analyzed, and a brief description of the results, whether positive, negative, or inconclusive. This section shall include the following:

(A) A summary of the nonclinical laboratory studies submitted in the application;

(B) A summary of the clinical investigations involving human subjects submitted in the application including a discussion of subject selection and exclusion criteria, study population, study period, safety and effectiveness data, adverse reactions and complications, patient discontinuation, patient complaints, device failures and replacements, results of statistical analyses of the clinical investigations, contraindications and precautions for use of the device, and other information from the clinical investigations as appropriate (any investigation conducted under an IDE shall be identified as such).

(vi) Conclusions drawn from the studies. A discussion demonstrating that the data and information in the application constitute valid scientific evidence within the meaning of § 860.7 and provide reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective for its intended use. A concluding discussion shall present benefit and risk considerations related to the device including a discussion of any adverse effects of the device on health and any proposed additional studies or surveillance the applicant intends to conduct following approval of the PMA.

(4) A complete description of:

(i) The device, including pictorial representations;

(ii) Each of the functional components or ingredients of the device if the device consists of more than one physical component or ingredient;

(iii) The properties of the device relevant to the diagnosis, treatment, prevention, cure, or mitigation of a disease or condition;

(iv) The principles of operation of the device; and

(v) The methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, processing, packing, storage, and, where appropriate, installation of the device, in sufficient detail so that a person generally familiar with current good manufacturing practice can make a knowledgeable judgment about the quality control used in the manufacture of the device.

(5) Reference to any performance standard under section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or under section 534 of Subchapter C - Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968) in effect or proposed at the time of the submission and to any voluntary standard that is relevant to any aspect of the safety or effectiveness of the device and that is known to or that should reasonably be known to the applicant. The applicant shall -

(i) Provide adequate information to demonstrate how the device meets, or justify any deviation from, any performance standard established under section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or under section 534 of Subchapter C - Electronic Product Radiation Control of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (formerly the Radiation Control for Health and Safety Act of 1968); and

(ii) Explain any deviation from a voluntary standard.

(6) The following technical sections which shall contain data and information in sufficient detail to permit FDA to determine whether to approve or deny approval of the application:

(i) A section containing results of the nonclinical laboratory studies with the device including microbiological, toxicological, immunological, biocompatibility, stress, wear, shelf life, and other laboratory or animal tests as appropriate. Information on nonclinical laboratory studies shall include a statement that each such study was conducted in compliance with part 58, or, if the study was not conducted in compliance with such regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance.

(ii) A section containing results of the clinical investigations involving human subjects with the device including clinical protocols, number of investigators and subjects per investigator, subject selection and exclusion criteria, study population, study period, safety and effectiveness data, adverse reactions and complications, patient discontinuation, patient complaints, device failures and replacements, tabulations of data from all individual subject report forms and copies of such forms for each subject who died during a clinical investigation or who did not complete the investigation, results of statistical analyses of the clinical investigations, device failures and replacements, contraindications and precautions for use of the device, and any other appropriate information from the clinical investigations. Any investigation conducted under an IDE shall be identified as such. Information on clinical investigations involving human subjects shall include the following:

(A) For clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement with respect to each investigation that it either was conducted in compliance with the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter, or was not subject to the regulations under § 56.104 or § 56.105, and that it was conducted in compliance with the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter; or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.

(B) For clinical investigations conducted in the United States, a statement that each investigation was conducted in compliance with part 812 of this chapter concerning sponsors of clinical investigations and clinical investigators, or if the investigation was not conducted in compliance with those regulations, a brief statement of the reason for the noncompliance. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.

(C) For clinical investigations conducted outside the United States that are intended to support the PMA, the requirements under § 812.28 of this chapter apply. If any such investigation was not conducted in accordance with good clinical practice (GCP) as described in § 812.28(a), include either a waiver request in accordance with § 812.28(c) or a brief statement of the reason for not conducting the investigation in accordance with GCP and a description of steps taken to ensure that the data and results are credible and accurate and that the rights, safety, and well-being of subjects have been adequately protected. Failure or inability to comply with these requirements does not justify failure to provide information on a relevant clinical investigation.

(7) For a PMA supported solely by data from one investigation, a justification showing that data and other information from a single investigator are sufficient to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of the device and to ensure reproducibility of test results.

(8)(i) A bibliography of all published reports not submitted under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, whether adverse or supportive, known to or that should reasonably be known to the applicant and that concern the safety or effectiveness of the device.

(ii) An identification, discussion, and analysis of any other data, information, or report relevant to an evaluation of the safety and effectiveness of the device known to or that should reasonably be known to the applicant from any source, foreign or domestic, including information derived from investigations other than those proposed in the application and from commercial marketing experience.

(iii) Copies of such published reports or unpublished information in the possession of or reasonably obtainable by the applicant if an FDA advisory committee or FDA requests.

(9) One or more samples of the device and its components, if requested by FDA. If it is impractical to submit a requested sample of the device, the applicant shall name the location at which FDA may examine and test one or more devices.

(10) Copies of all proposed labeling for the device. Such labeling may include, e.g., instructions for installation and any information, literature, or advertising that constitutes labeling under section 201(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(11) An environmental assessment under § 25.20(n) prepared in the applicable format in § 25.40, unless the action qualifies for exclusion under § 25.30 or § 25.34. If the applicant believes that the action qualifies for exclusion, the PMA shall under § 25.15(a) and (d) provide information that establishes to FDA's satisfaction that the action requested is included within the excluded category and meets the criteria for the applicable exclusion.

(12) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.

(13) Information concerning uses in pediatric patients. The application must include the following information, if readily available:

(i) A description of any pediatric subpopulations (neonates, infants, children, adolescents) that suffer from the disease or condition that the device is intended to treat, diagnose, or cure; and

(ii) The number of affected pediatric patients.

(14) Such other information as FDA may request. If necessary, FDA will obtain the concurrence of the appropriate FDA advisory committee before requesting additional information.

(c) Pertinent information in FDA files specifically referred to by an applicant may be incorporated into a PMA by reference. Information in a master file or other information submitted to FDA by a person other than the applicant will not be considered part of a PMA unless such reference is authorized in a record submitted to FDA by the person who submitted the information or the master file. If a master file is not referenced within 5 years after the date that it is submitted to FDA, FDA will return the master file to the person who submitted it.

(d) If the applicant believes that certain information required under paragraph (b) of this section to be in a PMA is not applicable to the device that is the subject of the PMA, and omits any such information from its PMA, the applicant shall submit a statement that identifies the omitted information and justifies the omission. The statement shall be submitted as a separate section in the PMA and identified in the table of contents. If the justification for the omission is not accepted by the agency, FDA will so notify the applicant.

(e) The applicant shall periodically update its pending application with new safety and effectiveness information learned about the device from ongoing or completed studies that may reasonably affect an evaluation of the safety or effectiveness of the device or that may reasonably affect the statement of contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse reactions in the draft labeling. The update report shall be consistent with the data reporting provisions of the protocol. The applicant shall submit any update report in electronic format and shall include in the report the number assigned by FDA to the PMA. These updates are considered to be amendments to the PMA. The time frame for review of a PMA will not be extended due to the submission of an update report unless the update is a major amendment under § 814.37(c)(1). The applicant shall submit these reports -

(1) 3 months after the filing date;

(2) Following receipt of an approvable letter; and

(3) At any other time as requested by FDA.

(f) If a color additive subject to section 721 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is used in or on the device and has not previously been listed for such use, then, in lieu of submitting a color additive petition under part 71 of this chapter, at the option of the applicant, the information required to be submitted under part 71 may be submitted as part of the PMA. When submitted as part of the PMA, the information shall be submitted in electronic format. A PMA for a device that contains a color additive that is subject to section 721 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act will not be approved until the color additive is listed for use in or on the device.

(g) Additional information on FDA policies and procedures, as well as links to PMA guidance documents, is available on the Internet at http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/HowtoMarketYourDevice/PremarketSubmissions/PremarketApprovalPMA/default.htm.

(h) If you are sending a PMA, PMA amendment, PMA supplement, or correspondence with respect to a PMA, you must send the submission to the appropriate address as follows:

(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send it to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.

(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send it to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm.

(3) For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send it to: Central Document Control Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.

(a) An applicant may amend a pending PMA or PMA supplement to revise existing information or provide additional information.

(b)(1) FDA may request the applicant to amend a PMA or PMA supplement with any information regarding the device that is necessary for FDA or the appropriate advisory committee to complete the review of the PMA or PMA supplement.

(2) FDA may request the applicant to amend a PMA or PMA supplement with information concerning pediatric uses as required under §§ 814.20(b)(13) and 814.39(c)(2).

(c) A PMA amendment submitted to FDA shall include the PMA or PMA supplement number assigned to the original submission and, if submitted on the applicant's own initiative, the reason for submitting the amendment. FDA may extend the time required for its review of the PMA, or PMA supplement, as follows:

(1) If the applicant on its own initiative or at FDA's request submits a major PMA amendment (e.g., an amendment that contains significant new data from a previously unreported study, significant updated data from a previously reported study, detailed new analyses of previously submitted data, or significant required information previously omitted), the review period may be extended up to 180 days.

(2) If an applicant declines to submit a major amendment requested by FDA, the review period may be extended for the number of days that elapse between the date of such request and the date that FDA receives the written response declining to submit the requested amendment.

(d) An applicant may on its own initiative withdraw a PMA or PMA supplement. If FDA requests an applicant to submit a PMA amendment and a written response to FDA's request is not received within 180 days of the date of the request, FDA will consider the pending PMA or PMA supplement to be withdrawn voluntarily by the applicant.

(e) An applicant may resubmit a PMA or PMA supplement after withdrawing it or after it is considered withdrawn under paragraph (d) of this section, or after FDA has refused to accept it for filing, or has denied approval of the PMA or PMA supplement. A resubmitted PMA or PMA supplement shall comply with the requirements of § 814.20 or § 814.39, respectively, and shall include the PMA number assigned to the original submission and the applicant's reasons for resubmission of the PMA or PMA supplement.

(a) After FDA's approval of a PMA, an applicant shall submit a PMA supplement for review and approval by FDA before making a change affecting the safety or effectiveness of the device for which the applicant has an approved PMA, unless the change is of a type for which FDA, under paragraph (e) of this section, has advised that an alternate submission is permitted or is of a type which, under section 515(d)(6)(A) of the act and paragraph (f) of this section, does not require a PMA supplement under this paragraph. While the burden for determining whether a supplement is required is primarily on the PMA holder, changes for which an applicant shall submit a PMA supplement include, but are not limited to, the following types of changes if they affect the safety or effectiveness of the device:

(1) New indications for use of the device.

(2) Labeling changes.

(3) The use of a different facility or establishment to manufacture, process, or package the device.

(4) Changes in sterilization procedures.

(5) Changes in packaging.

(6) Changes in the performance or design specifications, circuits, components, ingredients, principle of operation, or physical layout of the device.

(7) Extension of the expiration date of the device based on data obtained under a new or revised stability or sterility testing protocol that has not been approved by FDA. If the protocol has been approved, the change shall be reported to FDA under paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) An applicant may make a change in a device after FDA's approval of a PMA for the device without submitting a PMA supplement if the change does not affect the device's safety or effectiveness and the change is reported to FDA in postapproval periodic reports required as a condition to approval of the device, e.g., an editorial change in labeling which does not affect the safety or effectiveness of the device.

(c)(1) All procedures and actions that apply to an application under § 814.20 also apply to PMA supplements except that the information required in a supplement is limited to that needed to support the change. A summary under § 814.20(b)(3) is required for only a supplement submitted for new indications for use of the device, significant changes in the performance or design specifications, circuits, components, ingredients, principles of operation, or physical layout of the device, or when otherwise required by FDA. The applicant shall submit a PMA supplement in electronic format and shall include information relevant to the proposed changes in the device. A PMA supplement shall include a separate section that identifies each change for which approval is being requested and explains the reason for each such change. The applicant shall submit additional information, if requested by FDA, in electronic format. The time frames for review of, and FDA action on, a PMA supplement are the same as those provided in § 814.40 for a PMA.

(2) The supplement must include the following information:

(i) Information concerning pediatric uses as required under § 814.20(b)(13).

(ii) If information concerning the device that is the subject of the supplement was previously submitted under § 814.20(b)(13) or under this section in a previous supplement, that information may be included by referencing a previous application or submission that contains the information. However, if additional information required under § 814.20(b)(13) has become readily available to the applicant since the previous submission, the applicant must submit that information as part of the supplement.

(d)(1) After FDA approves a PMA, any change described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section to reflect newly acquired information that enhances the safety of the device or the safety in the use of the device may be placed into effect by the applicant prior to the receipt under § 814.17 of a written FDA order approving the PMA supplement provided that:

(i) The PMA supplement and its mailing cover are plainly marked “Special PMA Supplement - Changes Being Effected”;

(ii) The PMA supplement provides a full explanation of the basis for the changes;

(iii) The applicant has received acknowledgement from FDA of receipt of the supplement; and

(iv) The PMA supplement specifically identifies the date that such changes are being effected.

(2) The following changes are permitted by paragraph (d)(1) of this section:

(i) Labeling changes that add or strengthen a contraindication, warning, precaution, or information about an adverse reaction for which there is reasonable evidence of a causal association.

(ii) Labeling changes that add or strengthen an instruction that is intended to enhance the safe use of the device.

(iii) Labeling changes that delete misleading, false, or unsupported indications.

(iv) Changes in quality controls or manufacturing process that add a new specification or test method, or otherwise provide additional assurance of purity, identity, strength, or reliability of the device.

(e)(1) FDA will identify a change to a device for which an applicant has an approved PMA and for which a PMA supplement under paragraph (a) is not required. FDA will identify such a change in an advisory opinion under § 10.85, if the change applies to a generic type of device, or in correspondence to the applicant, if the change applies only to the applicant's device. FDA will require that a change for which a PMA supplement under paragraph (a) is not required be reported to FDA in:

(i) A periodic report under § 814.84 or

(ii) A 30-day PMA supplement under this paragraph.

(2) FDA will identify, in the advisory opinion or correspondence, the type of information that is to be included in the report or 30-day PMA supplement. If the change is required to be reported to FDA in a periodic report, the change may be made before it is reported to FDA. If the change is required to be reported in a 30-day PMA supplement, the change may be made 30 days after FDA files the 30-day PMA supplement unless FDA requires the PMA holder to provide additional information, informs the PMA holder that the supplement is not approvable, or disapproves the supplement. The 30-day PMA supplement shall follow the instructions in the correspondence or advisory opinion. Any 30-day PMA supplement that does not meet the requirements of the correspondence or advisory opinion will not be filed and, therefore, will not be deemed approved 30 days after receipt.

(f) Under section 515(d) of the act, modifications to manufacturing procedures or methods of manufacture that affect the safety and effectiveness of a device subject to an approved PMA do not require submission of a PMA supplement under paragraph (a) of this section and are eligible to be the subject of a 30-day notice. A 30-day notice shall describe in detail the change, summarize the data or information supporting the change, and state that the change has been made in accordance with the requirements of part 820 of this chapter. The manufacturer may distribute the device 30 days after the date on which FDA receives the 30-day notice, unless FDA notifies the applicant within 30 days from receipt of the notice that the notice is not adequate. If the notice is not adequate, FDA shall inform the applicant in writing that a 135-day PMA supplement is needed and shall describe what further information or action is required for acceptance of such change. The number of days under review as a 30-day notice shall be deducted from the 135-day PMA supplement review period if the notice meets appropriate content requirements for a PMA supplement.

(g) The submission and grant of a written request for an exception or alternative under § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter satisfies the requirement in paragraph (a) of this section.

Within 180 days after receipt of an application that is accepted for filing and to which the applicant does not submit a major amendment, FDA will review the PMA and, after receiving the report and recommendation of the appropriate FDA advisory committee, send the applicant an approval order under § 814.44(d), an approvable letter under § 814.44(e), a not approvable letter under § 814.44(f), or an order denying approval under § 814.45. The approvable letter and the not approvable letter will provide an opportunity for the applicant to amend or withdraw the application, or to consider the letter to be a denial of approval of the PMA under § 814.45 and to request administrative review under section 515 (d)(3) and (g) of the act.

(a) The filing of an application means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the application is sufficiently complete to permit a substantive review. Within 45 days after a PMA is received by FDA, the agency will notify the applicant whether the application has been filed.

(b) If FDA does not find that any of the reasons in paragraph (e) of this section for refusing to file the PMA applies, the agency will file the PMA and will notify the applicant in writing of the filing. The notice will include the PMA reference number and the date FDA filed the PMA. The date of filing is the date that a PMA accepted for filing was received by the agency. The 180-day period for review of a PMA starts on the date of filing.

(c) If FDA refuses to file a PMA, the agency will notify the applicant of the reasons for the refusal. This notice will identify the deficiencies in the application that prevent filing and will include the PMA reference number.

(d) If FDA refuses to file the PMA, the applicant may:

(1) Resubmit the PMA with additional information necessary to comply with the requirements of section 515(c)(1) (A)-(G) of the act and § 814.20. A resubmitted PMA shall include the PMA reference number of the original submission. If the resubmitted PMA is accepted for filing, the date of filing is the date FDA receives the resubmission;

(2) Request in writing within 10 working days of the date of receipt of the notice refusing to file the PMA, an informal conference with the Director of the Office of Device Evaluation to review FDA's decision not to file the PMA. FDA will hold the informal conference within 10 working days of its receipt of the request and will render its decision on filing within 5 working days after the informal conference. If, after the informal conference, FDA accepts the PMA for filing, the date of filing will be the date of the decision to accept the PMA for filing. If FDA does not reverse its decision not to file the PMA, the applicant may request reconsideration of the decision from the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Director of the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as applicable. The Director's decision will constitute final administrative action for the purpose of judicial review.

(e) FDA may refuse to file a PMA if any of the following applies:

(1) The application is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all the information required under section 515(c)(1) (A)-(G) of the act;

(2) The PMA does not contain each of the items required under § 814.20 and justification for omission of any item is inadequate;

(3) The applicant has a pending premarket notification under section 510(k) of the act with respect to the same device, and FDA has not determined whether the device falls within the scope of § 814.1(c).

(4) The PMA contains a false statement of material fact.

(5) The PMA is not accompanied by a statement of either certification or disclosure as required by part 54 of this chapter.

(a) FDA will begin substantive review of a PMA after the PMA is accepted for filing under § 814.42. FDA may refer the PMA to a panel on its own initiative, and will do so upon request of an applicant, unless FDA determines that the application substantially duplicates information previously reviewed by a panel. If FDA refers an application to a panel, FDA will forward the PMA, or relevant portions thereof, to each member of the appropriate FDA panel for review. During the review process, FDA may communicate with the applicant as set forth under § 814.37(b), or with a panel to respond to questions that may be posed by panel members or to provide additional information to the panel. FDA will maintain a record of all communications with the applicant and with the panel.

(b) The advisory committee shall submit a report to FDA which includes the committee's recommendation and the basis for such recommendation on the PMA. Before submission of this report, the committee shall hold a public meeting to review the PMA in accordance with part 14. This meeting may be held by a telephone conference under § 14.22(g). The advisory committee report and recommendation may be in the form of a meeting transcript signed by the chairperson of the committee.

(c) FDA will complete its review of the PMA and the advisory committee report and recommendation and, within the later of 180 days from the date of filing of the PMA under § 814.42 or the number of days after the date of filing as determined under § 814.37(c), issue an approval order under paragraph (d) of this section, an approvable letter under paragraph (e) of this section, a not approvable letter under paragraph (f) of this section, or an order denying approval of the application under § 814.45(a).

(d)(1) FDA will issue to the applicant an order approving a PMA if none of the reasons in § 814.45 for denying approval of the application applies. FDA will approve an application on the basis of draft final labeling if the only deficiencies in the application concern editorial or similar minor deficiencies in the draft final labeling. Such approval will be conditioned upon the applicant incorporating the specified labeling changes exactly as directed and upon the applicant submitting to FDA a copy of the final printed labeling before marketing. FDA will also give the public notice of the order, including notice of and opportunity for any interested persons to request review under section 515(d)(3) of the act. The notice of approval will be placed on FDA's home page on the Internet (http://www.fda.gov), and it will state that a detailed summary of information respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device, which was the basis for the order approving the PMA, including information about any adverse effects of the device on health, is available on the Internet and has been placed on public display, and that copies are available upon request. FDA will publish in the Federal Register after each quarter a list of the approvals announced in that quarter. When a notice of approval is published, data and information in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9.

(2) A request for copies of the current PMA approvals and denials document and for copies of summaries of safety and effectiveness shall be sent in writing to the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.

(e) FDA will send the applicant an approvable letter if the application substantially meets the requirements of this part and the agency believes it can approve the application if specific additional information is submitted or specific conditions are agreed to by the applicant.

(1) The approvable letter will describe the information FDA requires to be provided by the applicant or the conditions the applicant is required to meet to obtain approval. For example, FDA may require, as a condition to approval:

(i) The submission of certain information identified in the approvable letter, e.g., final labeling;

(ii) The submission of additional information concerning pediatric uses required by § 814.20(b)(13);

(iii) An FDA inspection that finds the manufacturing facilities, methods, and controls in compliance with part 820 and, if applicable, that verifies records pertinent to the PMA;

(iv) Restrictions imposed on the device under section 515(d)(1)(B)(ii) or 520(e) of the act;

(v) Postapproval requirements as described in subpart E of this part.

(2) In response to an approvable letter the applicant may:

(i) Amend the PMA as requested in the approvable letter; or

(ii) Consider the approvable letter to be a denial of approval of the PMA under § 814.45 and request administrative review under section 515(d)(3) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33; or

(iii) Withdraw the PMA.

(f) FDA will send the applicant a not approvable letter if the agency believes that the application may not be approved for one or more of the reasons given in § 814.45(a). The not approvable letter will describe the deficiencies in the application, including each applicable ground for denial under section 515(d)(2) (A)-(E) of the act, and, where practical, will identify measures required to place the PMA in approvable form. In response to a not approvable letter, the applicant may:

(1) Amend the PMA as requested in the not approvable letter (such an amendment will be considered a major amendment under § 814.37(c)(1)); or

(2) Consider the not approvable letter to be a denial of approval of the PMA under § 814.45 and request administrative review under section 515(d)(3) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33; or

(3) Withdraw the PMA.

(g) FDA will consider a PMA to have been withdrawn voluntarily if:

(1) The applicant fails to respond in writing to a written request for an amendment within 180 days after the date FDA issues such request;

(2) The applicant fails to respond in writing to an approvable or not approvable letter within 180 days after the date FDA issues such letter; or

(3) The applicant submits a written notice to FDA that the PMA has been withdrawn.

(a) FDA may issue an order denying approval of a PMA if the applicant fails to follow the requirements of this part or if, upon the basis of the information submitted in the PMA or any other information before the agency, FDA determines that any of the grounds for denying approval of a PMA specified in section 515(d)(2) (A)-(E) of the act applies. In addition, FDA may deny approval of a PMA for any of the following reasons:

(1) The PMA contains a false statement of material fact;

(2) The device's proposed labeling does not comply with the requirements in part 801 or part 809;

(3) The applicant does not permit an authorized FDA employee an opportunity to inspect at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner the facilities, controls, and to have access to and to copy and verify all records pertinent to the application;

(4) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the PMA and that is essential to show that the device is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study; or

(5) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the PMA, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter or GCP referenced in § 814.15(a) and described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected or the supporting data were determined to be otherwise unreliable.

(b) FDA will issue any order denying approval of the PMA in accordance with § 814.17. The order will inform the applicant of the deficiencies in the PMA, including each applicable ground for denial under section 515(d)(2) of the act and the regulations under this part, and, where practical, will identify measures required to place the PMA in approvable form. The order will include a notice of an opportunity to request review under section 515(d)(4) of the act.

(c) FDA will use the criteria specified in § 860.7 to determine the safety and effectiveness of a device in deciding whether to approve or deny approval of a PMA. FDA may use information other than that submitted by the applicant in making such determination.

(d)(1) FDA will give the public notice of an order denying approval of the PMA. The notice will be placed on the FDA's home page on the Internet (http://www.fda.gov), and it will state that a detailed summary of information respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device, including information about any adverse effects of the device on health, is available on the Internet and has been placed on public display and that copies are available upon request. FDA will publish in the Federal Register after each quarter a list of the denials announced in that quarter. When a notice of denial of approval is made publicly available, data and information in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9.

(2) A request for copies of the current PMA approvals and denials document and copies of summaries of safety and effectiveness shall be sent in writing to the Freedom of Information Staff's address listed on the Agency's Web site at http://www.fda.gov.

(e) FDA will issue an order denying approval of a PMA after an approvable or not approvable letter has been sent and the applicant:

(1) Submits a requested amendment but any ground for denying approval of the application under section 515(d)(2) of the act still applies; or

(2) Notifies FDA in writing that the requested amendment will not be submitted; or

(3) Petitions for review under section 515(d)(3) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33.

(a) FDA may issue an order withdrawing approval of a PMA if, from any information available to the agency, FDA determines that:

(1) Any of the grounds under section 515(e)(1) (A)-(G) of the act applies.

(2) Any postapproval requirement imposed by the PMA approval order or by regulation has not been met.

(3) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the PMA and that is essential to show that the device is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study.

(4) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the PMA, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter or GCP referenced in § 814.15(a) and described in § 812.28(a) of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected or the supporting data were determined to be otherwise unreliable.

(b)(1) FDA may seek advice on scientific matters from any appropriate FDA advisory committee in deciding whether to withdraw approval of a PMA.

(2) FDA may use information other than that submitted by the applicant in deciding whether to withdraw approval of a PMA.

(c) Before issuing an order withdrawing approval of a PMA, FDA will issue the holder of the approved application a notice of opportunity for an informal hearing under part 16.

(d) If the applicant does not request a hearing or if after the part 16 hearing is held the agency decides to proceed with the withdrawal, FDA will issue to the holder of the approved application an order withdrawing approval of the application. The order will be issued under § 814.17, will state each ground for withdrawing approval, and will include a notice of an opportunity for administrative review under section 515(e)(2) of the act.

(e) FDA will give the public notice of an order withdrawing approval of a PMA. The notice will be published in the Federal Register and will state that a detailed summary of information respecting the safety and effectiveness of the device, including information about any adverse effects of the device on health, has been placed on public display and that copies are available upon request. When a notice of withdrawal of approval is published, data and information in the PMA file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9.

(a) Scope. (1) This section describes the procedures that FDA will follow in exercising its authority under section 515(e)(3) of the act (21 U.S.C. 360e(e)(3)). This authority applies to the original PMA, as well as any PMA supplement(s), for a medical device.

(2) FDA will issue an order temporarily suspending approval of a PMA if FDA determines that there is a reasonable probability that continued distribution of the device would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death.

(b) Regulatory hearing. (1) If FDA believes that there is a reasonable probability that the continued distribution of a device subject to an approved PMA would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, FDA may initiate and conduct a regulatory hearing to determine whether to issue an order temporarily suspending approval of the PMA.

(2) Any regulatory hearing to determine whether to issue an order temporarily suspending approval of a PMA shall be initiated and conducted by FDA pursuant to part 16 of this chapter. If FDA believes that immediate action to remove a dangerous device from the market is necessary to protect the public health, the agency may, in accordance with § 16.60(h) of this chapter, waive, suspend, or modify any part 16 procedure pursuant to § 10.19 of this chapter.

(3) FDA shall deem the PMA holder's failure to request a hearing within the timeframe specified by FDA in the notice of opportunity for hearing to be a waiver.

(c) Temporary suspension order. If the PMA holder does not request a regulatory hearing or if, after the hearing, and after consideration of the administrative record of the hearing, FDA determines that there is a reasonable probability that the continued distribution of a device under an approved PMA would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, the agency shall, under the authority of section 515(e)(3) of the act, issue an order to the PMA holder temporarily suspending approval of the PMA.

(d) Permanent withdrawal of approval of the PMA. If FDA issues an order temporarily suspending approval of a PMA, the agency shall proceed expeditiously, but within 60 days, to hold a hearing on whether to permanently withdraw approval of the PMA in accordance with section 515(e)(1) of the act and the procedures set out in § 814.46.

A device may not be manufactured, packaged, stored, labeled, distributed, or advertised in a manner that is inconsistent with any conditions to approval specified in the PMA approval order for the device.

(a) FDA may impose postapproval requirements in a PMA approval order or by regulation at the time of approval of the PMA or by regulation subsequent to approval. Postapproval requirements may include as a condition to approval of the device:

(1) Restriction of the sale, distribution, or use of the device as provided by section 515(d)(1)(B)(ii) or 520(e) of the act.

(2) Continuing evaluation and periodic reporting on the safety, effectiveness, and reliability of the device for its intended use. FDA will state in the PMA approval order the reason or purpose for such requirement and the number of patients to be evaluated and the reports required to be submitted.

(3) Prominent display in the labeling of a device and in the advertising of any restricted device of warnings, hazards, or precautions important for the device's safe and effective use, including patient information, e.g., information provided to the patient on alternative modes of therapy and on risks and benefits associated with the use of the device.

(4) Inclusion of identification codes on the device or its labeling, or in the case of an implant, on cards given to patients if necessary to protect the public health.

(5) Maintenance of records that will enable the applicant to submit to FDA information needed to trace patients if such information is necessary to protect the public health. Under section 519(a)(4) of the act, FDA will require that the identity of any patient be disclosed in records maintained under this paragraph only to the extent required for the medical welfare of the individual, to determine the safety or effectiveness of the device, or to verify a record, report, or information submitted to the agency.

(6) Maintenance of records for specified periods of time and organization and indexing of records into identifiable files to enable FDA to determine whether there is reasonable assurance of the continued safety and effectiveness of the device.

(7) Submission to FDA at intervals specified in the approval order of periodic reports containing the information required by § 814.84(b).

(8) Batch testing of the device.

(9) Such other requirements as FDA determines are necessary to provide reasonable assurance, or continued reasonable assurance, of the safety and effectiveness of the device.

(b) An applicant shall grant to FDA access to any records and reports required under the provisions of this part, and shall permit authorized FDA employees to copy and verify such records and reports and to inspect at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner all manufacturing facilities to verify that the device is being manufactured, stored, labeled, and shipped under approved conditions.

(c) Failure to comply with any postapproval requirement constitutes a ground for withdrawal of approval of a PMA.

(a) The holder of an approved PMA shall comply with the requirements of part 803 and with any other requirements applicable to the device by other regulations in this subchapter or by order approving the device.

(b) Unless FDA specifies otherwise, any periodic report shall:

(1) Identify changes described in § 814.39(a) and changes required to be reported to FDA under § 814.39(b).

(2) Contain a summary and bibliography of the following information not previously submitted as part of the PMA:

(i) Unpublished reports of data from any clinical investigations or nonclinical laboratory studies involving the device or related devices and known to or that reasonably should be known to the applicant.

(ii) Reports in the scientific literature concerning the device and known to or that reasonably should be known to the applicant. If, after reviewing the summary and bibliography, FDA concludes that the agency needs a copy of the unpublished or published reports, FDA will notify the applicant that copies of such reports shall be submitted.

(3) Identify changes made pursuant to an exception or alternative granted under § 801.128 or § 809.11 of this chapter.

(4) Identify each device identifier currently in use for the device, and each device identifier for the device that has been discontinued since the previous periodic report. It is not necessary to identify any device identifier discontinued prior to December 23, 2013.

(a) This subpart H implements sections 515A and 520(m) of the act.

(b) The purpose of section 520(m) is, to the extent consistent with the protection of the public health and safety and with ethical standards, to encourage the discovery and use of devices intended to benefit patients in the treatment or diagnosis of diseases or conditions that affect or are manifested in not more than 8,000individuals in the United States per year. This subpart provides procedures for obtaining:

(1) HUD designation of a medical device; and

(2) Marketing approval for the HUD notwithstanding the absence of reasonable assurance of effectiveness that would otherwise be required under sections 514 and 515 of the act.

(c) Section 515A of the act is intended to ensure the submission of readily available information concerning:

(1) Any pediatric subpopulations (neonates, infants, children, adolescents) that suffer from the disease or condition that the device is intended to treat, diagnose, or cure; and

(2) The number of affected pediatric patients.

(d) Although a HUD may also have uses that differ from the humanitarian use, applicants seeking approval of any non-HUD use shall submit a PMA as required under § 814.20, or a premarket notification as required under part 807 of this chapter.

(e) Obtaining marketing approval for a HUD involves two steps:

(1) Obtaining designation of the device as a HUD from FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development, and

(2) Submitting an HDE to the Office of Device Evaluation (ODE), Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER), as applicable.

(f) A person granted an exemption under section 520(m) of the act shall submit periodic reports as described in § 814.126(b).

(g) FDA may suspend or withdraw approval of an HDE after providing notice and an opportunity for an informal hearing.

(a) Request for designation. Prior to submitting an HDE application, the applicant shall submit a request for HUD designation to FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development. The request shall contain the following:

(1) A statement that the applicant requests HUD designation for a rare disease or condition or a valid subset of a disease or condition which shall be identified with specificity;

(2) The name and address of the applicant, the name of the applicant's primary contact person and/or resident agent, including title, address, and telephone number;

(3) A description of the rare disease or condition for which the device is to be used, the proposed indication or indications for use of the device, and the reasons why such therapy is needed. If the device is proposed for an indication that represents a subset of a common disease or condition, a demonstration that the subset is medically plausible should be included;

(4) A description of the device and a discussion of the scientific rationale for the use of the device for the rare disease or condition; and

(5) Documentation, with appended authoritative references, to demonstrate that the device is designed to treat or diagnose a disease or condition that affects or is manifested in not more than 8,000 people in the United States per year. If the device is for diagnostic purposes, the documentation must demonstrate that not more than 8,000 patients per year would be subjected to diagnosis by the device in the United States. Authoritative references include literature citations in specialized medical journals, textbooks, specialized medical society proceedings, or governmental statistics publications. When no such studies or literature citations exist, the applicant may be able to demonstrate the prevalence of the disease or condition in the United States by providing credible conclusions from appropriate research or surveys.

(b) FDA action. Within 45 days of receipt of a request for HUD designation, FDA will take one of the following actions:

(1) Approve the request and notify the applicant that the device has been designated as a HUD based on the information submitted;

(2) Return the request to the applicant pending further review upon submission of additional information. This action will ensue if the request is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all of the information required under § 814.102(a). Upon receipt of this additional information, the review period may be extended up to 45 days; or

(3) Disapprove the request for HUD designation based on a substantive review of the information submitted. FDA may disapprove a request for HUD designation if:

(i) There is insufficient evidence to support the estimate that the disease or condition for which the device is designed to treat or diagnose affects or is manifested in not more than 8,000 people in the United States per year;

(ii) FDA determines that, for a diagnostic device, more than 8,000 patients in the United States would be subjected to diagnosis using the device per year; or

(iii) FDA determines that the patient population defined in the request is not a medically plausible subset of a larger population.

(c) Revocation of designation. FDA may revoke a HUD designation if the agency finds that:

(1) The request for designation contained an untrue statement of material fact or omitted material information; or

(2) Based on the evidence available, the device is not eligible for HUD designation.

(d) Submission. The applicant shall submit two copies of a completed, dated, and signed request for HUD designation to: Office of Orphan Products Development (HF-35), Food and Drug Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857.

(a) United States applicant or representative. The applicant or an authorized representative shall sign the HDE. If the applicant does not reside or have a place of business within the United States, the HDE shall be countersigned by an authorized representative residing or maintaining a place of business in the United States and shall identify the representative's name and address.

(b) Contents. Unless the applicant justifies an omission in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, an HDE shall include:

(1) A copy of or reference to the determination made by FDA's Office of Orphan Products Development (in accordance with § 814.102) that the device qualifies as a HUD;

(2) An explanation of why the device would not be available unless an HDE were granted and a statement that no comparable device (other than another HUD approved under this subpart or a device under an approved IDE) is available to treat or diagnose the disease or condition. The application also shall contain a discussion of the risks and benefits of currently available devices or alternative forms of treatment in the United States;

(3) An explanation of why the probable benefit to health from the use of the device outweighs the risk of injury or illness from its use, taking into account the probable risks and benefits of currently available devices or alternative forms of treatment. Such explanation shall include a description, explanation, or theory of the underlying disease process or condition, and known or postulated mechanism(s) of action of the device in relation to the disease process or condition;

(4) All of the information required to be submitted under § 814.20(b), except that:

(i) In lieu of the summaries, conclusions, and results from clinical investigations required under § 814.20(b)(3)(v)(B), (b)(3)(vi), and the introductory text of (b)(6)(ii), the applicant shall include the summaries, conclusions, and results of all clinical experience or investigations (whether adverse or supportive) reasonably obtainable by the applicant that are relevant to an assessment of the risks and probable benefits of the device and to the extent the applicant includes data from clinical investigations, the applicant shall include the statements described in § 814.20(b)(6)(ii)(A) and (B) with respect to clinical investigations conducted in the United States and the information described in § 814.20(b)(6)(ii)(C) with respect to clinical investigations conducted outside the United States; and

(ii) In addition to the proposed labeling requirement set forth in § 814.20(b)(10), the labeling shall bear the following statement: Humanitarian Device. Authorized by Federal law for use in the [treatment or diagnosis] of [specify disease or condition]. The effectiveness of this device for this use has not been demonstrated;

(5) The amount to be charged for the device and, if the amount is more than $250, a report by an independent certified public accountant, made in accordance with the Statement on Standards for Attestation established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, or in lieu of such a report, an attestation by a responsible individual of the organization, verifying that the amount charged does not exceed the costs of the device's research, development, fabrication, and distribution. If the amount charged is $250 or less, the requirement for a report by an independent certified public accountant or an attestation by a responsible individual of the organization is waived; and

(6) Information concerning pediatric uses of the device, as required by § 814.20(b)(13).

(c) Omission of information. If the applicant believes that certain information required under paragraph (b) of this section is not applicable to the device that is the subject of the HDE, and omits any such information from its HDE, the applicant shall submit a statement that identifies and justifies the omission. The statement shall be submitted as a separate section in the HDE and identified in the table of contents. If the justification for the omission is not accepted by the agency, FDA will so notify the applicant.

(d) Address for submissions and correspondence. All original HDEs, amendments and supplements, as well as any correspondence relating to an HDE, must be provided in electronic format. These materials must be sent or delivered to one of the following:

(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send it to the current address found on the website https://www.fda.gov/cdrhsubmissionaddress.

(2) For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send it to the current address displayed on the website https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CBER/ucm385240.htm.

(3) For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send this information to the Central Document Control Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266.

An HDE or HDE supplement may be amended or resubmitted upon an applicant's own initiative, or at the request of FDA, for the same reasons and in the same manner as prescribed for PMA's in § 814.37, except that the timeframes set forth in § 814.37(c)(1) and (d) do not apply. If FDA requests an HDE applicant to submit an HDE amendment, and a written response to FDA's request is not received within 75 days of the date of the request, FDA will consider the pending HDE or HDE supplement to be withdrawn voluntarily by the applicant. Furthermore, if the HDE applicant, on its own initiative or at FDA's request, submits a major amendment as described in § 814.37(c)(1), the review period may be extended up to 75 days.

After FDA approval of an original HDE, an applicant shall submit supplements in accordance with the requirements for PMA's under § 814.39, except that a request for a new indication for use of a HUD shall comply with requirements set forth in § 814.110. The timeframes for review of, and FDA action on, an HDE supplement are the same as those provided in § 814.114 for an HDE.

(a) An applicant seeking a new indication for use of a HUD approved under this subpart H shall obtain a new designation of HUD status in accordance with § 814.102 and shall submit an original HDE in accordance with § 814.104.

(b) An application for a new indication for use made under § 814.104 may incorporate by reference any information or data previously submitted to the agency under an HDE.

(a) The filing of an HDE means that FDA has made a threshold determination that the application is sufficiently complete to permit substantive review. Within 30 days from the date an HDE is received by FDA, the agency will notify the applicant whether the application has been filed. FDA may refuse to file an HDE if any of the following applies:

(1) The application is incomplete because it does not on its face contain all the information required under § 814.104(b);

(2) FDA determines that there is a comparable device available (other than another HUD approved under this subpart or a device under an approved IDE) to treat or diagnose the disease or condition for which approval of the HUD is being sought; or

(3) The application contains an untrue statement of material fact or omits material information.

(4) The HDE is not accompanied by a statement of either certification or disclosure, or both, as required by part 54 of this chapter.

(b) The provisions contained in § 814.42(b), (c), and (d) regarding notification of filing decisions, filing dates, the start of the 75-day review period, and applicant's options in response to FDA refuse to file decisions shall apply to HDE's.

Within 75 days after receipt of an HDE that is accepted for filing and to which the applicant does not submit a major amendment, FDA shall send the applicant an approval order, an approvable letter, a not approvable letter (under § 814.116), or an order denying approval (under § 814.118).

(a) Substantive review. FDA will begin substantive review of an HDE after the HDE is accepted for filing under § 814.112. FDA may refer an original HDE application to a panel on its own initiative, and shall do so upon the request of an applicant, unless FDA determines that the application substantially duplicates information previously reviewed by a panel. If the HDE is referred to a panel, the agency shall follow the procedures set forth under § 814.44, with the exception that FDA will complete its review of the HDE and the advisory committee report and recommendations within 75 days from receipt of an HDE that is accepted for filing under § 814.112 or the date of filing as determined under § 814.106, whichever is later. Within the later of these two timeframes, FDA will issue an approval order under paragraph (b) of this section, an approvable letter under paragraph (c) of this section, a not approvable letter under paragraph (d) of this section, or an order denying approval of the application under § 814.118(a).

(b) Approval order. FDA will issue to the applicant an order approving an HDE if none of the reasons in § 814.118 for denying approval of the application applies. FDA will approve an application on the basis of draft final labeling if the only deficiencies in the application concern editorial or similar minor deficiencies in the draft final labeling. Such approval will be conditioned upon the applicant incorporating the specified labeling changes exactly as directed and upon the applicant submitting to FDA a copy of the final printed labeling before marketing. The notice of approval of an HDE will be published in the Federal Register in accordance with the rules and policies applicable to PMA's submitted under § 814.20. Following the issuance of an approval order, data and information in the HDE file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with § 814.9(b) through (h), as applicable.

(c) Approvable letter. FDA will send the applicant an approvable letter if the application substantially meets the requirements of this subpart and the agency believes it can approve the application if specific additional information is submitted or specific conditions are agreed to by the applicant. The approvable letter will describe the information FDA requires to be provided by the applicant or the conditions the applicant is required to meet to obtain approval. For example, FDA may require as a condition to approval:

(1) The submission of certain information identified in the approvable letter, e.g., final labeling;

(2) The submission of additional information concerning pediatric uses of the device, as required by § 814.20(b)(13);

(3) Restrictions imposed on the device under section 520(e) of the act;

(4) Postapproval requirements as described in subpart E of this part; and

(5) An FDA inspection that finds the manufacturing facilities, methods, and controls in compliance with part 820 of this chapter and, if applicable, that verifies records pertinent to the HDE.

(d) Not approvable letter. FDA will send the applicant a not approvable letter if the agency believes that the application may not be approved for one or more of the reasons given in § 814.118. The not approvable letter will describe the deficiencies in the application and, where practical, will identify measures required to place the HDE in approvable form. The applicant may respond to the not approvable letter in the same manner as permitted for not approvable letters for PMA's under § 814.44(f), with the exception that if a major HDE amendment is submitted, the review period may be extended up to 75 days.

(e) FDA will consider an HDE to have been withdrawn voluntarily if:

(1) The applicant fails to respond in writing to a written request for an amendment within 75 days after the date FDA issues such request;

(2) The applicant fails to respond in writing to an approvable or not approvable letter within 75 days after the date FDA issues such letter; or

(3) The applicant submits a written notice to FDA that the HDE has been withdrawn.

(a) FDA may deny approval or withdraw approval of an application if the applicant fails to meet the requirements of section 520(m) of the act or of this part, or of any condition of approval imposed by an IRB or by FDA, or any postapproval requirements imposed under § 814.126. In addition, FDA may deny approval or withdraw approval of an application if, upon the basis of the information submitted in the HDE or any other information before the agency, FDA determines that:

(1) There is a lack of a showing of reasonable assurance that the device is safe under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof;

(2) The device is ineffective under the conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling thereof;

(3) The applicant has not demonstrated that there is a reasonable basis from which to conclude that the probable benefit to health from the use of the device outweighs the risk of injury or illness, taking into account the probable risks and benefits of currently available devices or alternative forms of treatment;

(4) The application or a report submitted by or on behalf of the applicant contains an untrue statement of material fact, or omits material information;

(5) The device's labeling does not comply with the requirements in part 801 or part 809 of this chapter;

(6) A nonclinical laboratory study that is described in the HDE and that is essential to show that the device is safe for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in its proposed labeling, was not conducted in compliance with the good laboratory practice regulations in part 58 of this chapter and no reason for the noncompliance is provided or, if it is, the differences between the practices used in conducting the study and the good laboratory practice regulations do not support the validity of the study;

(7) Any clinical investigation involving human subjects described in the HDE, subject to the institutional review board regulations in part 56 of this chapter or the informed consent regulations in part 50 of this chapter, was not conducted in compliance with those regulations such that the rights or safety of human subjects were not adequately protected;

(8) The applicant does not permit an authorized FDA employee an opportunity to inspect at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner the facilities and controls, and to have access to and to copy and verify all records pertinent to the application; or

(9) The device's HUD designation should be revoked in accordance with § 814.102(c).

(b) If FDA issues an order denying approval of an application, the agency will comply with the same notice and disclosure provisions required for PMA's under § 814.45(b) and (d), as applicable.

(c) FDA will issue an order denying approval of an HDE after an approvable or not approvable letter has been sent and the applicant:

(1) Submits a requested amendment but any ground for denying approval of the application under § 814.118(a) still applies;

(2) Notifies FDA in writing that the requested amendment will not be submitted; or

(3) Petitions for review under section 515(d)(3) of the act by filing a petition in the form of a petition for reconsideration under § 10.33 of this chapter.

(d) Before issuing an order withdrawing approval of an HDE, FDA will provide the applicant with notice and an opportunity for a hearing as required for PMA's under § 814.46(c) and (d), and will provide the public with notice in accordance with § 814.46(e), as applicable.

An HDE or HDE supplement may be temporarily suspended for the same reasons and in the same manner as prescribed for PMA's in § 814.47.

(a) Requirement for disclosure. The “HDE file” includes all data and information submitted with or referenced in the HDE, any IDE incorporated into the HDE, any HDE amendment or supplement, any report submitted under § 814.126, any master file, or any other related submission. Any record in the HDE file will be available for public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of this section and part 20 of this chapter.

(b) Extent of disclosure. Disclosure by FDA of the existence and contents of an HDE file shall be subject to the same rules that pertain to PMA's under § 814.9(b) through (h), as applicable.

(a) IRB approval. The HDE holder is responsible for ensuring that a HUD approved under this subpart is administered only in facilities having oversight by an Institutional Review Board (IRB) constituted and acting pursuant to part 56 of this chapter, including continuing review of use of the device. In addition, a HUD may be administered only if such use has been approved by an IRB. If, however, a physician in an emergency situation determines that approval from an IRB cannot be obtained in time to prevent serious harm or death to a patient, a HUD may be administered without prior approval by an IRB. In such an emergency situation, the physician shall, within 5 days after the use of the device, provide written notification to the chairman of the IRB of such use. Such written notification shall include the identification of the patient involved, the date on which the device was used, and the reason for the use.

(b) Withdrawal of IRB approval. A holder of an approved HDE shall notify FDA of any withdrawal of approval for the use of a HUD by a reviewing IRB within 5 working days after being notified of the withdrawal of approval.

(a) An HDE approved under this subpart H shall be subject to the postapproval requirements and reports set forth under subpart E of this part, as applicable, with the exception of § 814.82(a)(7). In addition, medical device reports submitted to FDA in compliance with the requirements of part 803 of this chapter shall also be submitted to the IRB of record.

(b) In addition to the reports identified in paragraph (a) of this section, the holder of an approved HDE shall prepare and submit the following complete, accurate, and timely reports:

(1) Periodic reports. An HDE applicant is required to submit reports in accordance with the approval order. Unless FDA specifies otherwise, any periodic report shall include:

(i) An update of the information required under § 814.102(a) in a separately bound volume;

(ii) An update of the information required under § 814.104(b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(5);

(iii) The number of devices that have been shipped or sold since initial marketing approval under this subpart H and, if the number shipped or sold exceeds 8,000, an explanation and estimate of the number of devices used per patient. If a single device is used on multiple patients, the applicant shall submit an estimate of the number of patients treated or diagnosed using the device together with an explanation of the basis for the estimate;

(iv) Information describing the applicant's clinical experience with the device since the HDE was initially approved. This information shall include safety information that is known or reasonably should be known to the applicant, medical device reports made under part 803 of this chapter, any data generated from the postmarketing studies, and information (whether published or unpublished) that is known or reasonably expected to be known by the applicant that may affect an evaluation of the safety of the device or that may affect the statement of contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse reactions in the device's labeling; and

(v) A summary of any changes made to the device in accordance with supplements submitted under § 814.108. If information provided in the periodic reports, or any other information in the possession of FDA, gives the agency reason to believe that a device raises public health concerns or that the criteria for exemption are no longer met, the agency may require the HDE holder to submit additional information to demonstrate continued compliance with the HDE requirements.

(2) Other. An HDE holder shall maintain records of the names and addresses of the facilities to which the HUD has been shipped, correspondence with reviewing IRB's, as well as any other information requested by a reviewing IRB or FDA. Such records shall be maintained in accordance with the HDE approval order.

(a) Applicability. (1) Current good manufacturing practice (CGMP) requirements are set forth in this quality system regulation. The requirements in this part govern the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the design, manufacture, packaging, labeling, storage, installation, and servicing of all finished devices intended for human use. The requirements in this part are intended to ensure that finished devices will be safe and effective and otherwise in compliance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act). This part establishes basic requirements applicable to manufacturers of finished medical devices. If a manufacturer engages in only some operations subject to the requirements in this part, and not in others, that manufacturer need only comply with those requirements applicable to the operations in which it is engaged. With respect to class I devices, design controls apply only to those devices listed in § 820.30(a)(2). This regulation does not apply to manufacturers of components or parts of finished devices, but such manufacturers are encouraged to use appropriate provisions of this regulation as guidance. Manufacturers of blood and blood components used for transfusion or for further manufacturing are not subject to this part, but are subject to subchapter F of this chapter. Manufacturers of human cells, tissues, and cellular and tissue-based products (HCT/Ps), as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter, that are medical devices (subject to premarket review or notification, or exempt from notification, under an application submitted under the device provisions of the act or under a biological product license application under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act) are subject to this part and are also subject to the donor-eligibility procedures set forth in part 1271 subpart C of this chapter and applicable current good tissue practice procedures in part 1271 subpart D of this chapter. In the event of a conflict between applicable regulations in part 1271 and in other parts of this chapter, the regulation specifically applicable to the device in question shall supersede the more general.

(2) The provisions of this part shall be applicable to any finished device as defined in this part, intended for human use, that is manufactured, imported, or offered for import in any State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(3) In this regulation the term “where appropriate” is used several times. When a requirement is qualified by “where appropriate,” it is deemed to be “appropriate” unless the manufacturer can document justification otherwise. A requirement is “appropriate” if nonimplementation could reasonably be expected to result in the product not meeting its specified requirements or the manufacturer not being able to carry out any necessary corrective action.

(b) The quality system regulation in this part supplements regulations in other parts of this chapter except where explicitly stated otherwise. In the event of a conflict between applicable regulations in this part and in other parts of this chapter, the regulations specifically applicable to the device in question shall supersede any other generally applicable requirements.

(c) Authority. Part 820 is established and issued under authority of sections 501, 502, 510, 513, 514, 515, 518, 519, 520, 522, 701, 704, 801, 803 of the act (21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360, 360c, 360d, 360e, 360h, 360i, 360j, 360l, 371, 374, 381, 383). The failure to comply with any applicable provision in this part renders a device adulterated under section 501(h) of the act. Such a device, as well as any person responsible for the failure to comply, is subject to regulatory action.

(d) Foreign manufacturers. If a manufacturer who offers devices for import into the United States refuses to permit or allow the completion of a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) inspection of the foreign facility for the purpose of determining compliance with this part, it shall appear for purposes of section 801(a) of the act, that the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the design, manufacture, packaging, labeling, storage, installation, or servicing of any devices produced at such facility that are offered for import into the United States do not conform to the requirements of section 520(f) of the act and this part and that the devices manufactured at that facility are adulterated under section 501(h) of the act.

(e) Exemptions or variances. (1) Any person who wishes to petition for an exemption or variance from any device quality system requirement is subject to the requirements of section 520(f)(2) of the act. Petitions for an exemption or variance shall be submitted according to the procedures set forth in § 10.30 of this chapter, the FDA's administrative procedures. Guidance is available from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Division of Small Manufacturers, International and Consumer Assistance, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. 4613, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 1-800-638-2041 or 301-796-7100, FAX: 301-847-8149.

(2) FDA may initiate and grant a variance from any device quality system requirement when the agency determines that such variance is in the best interest of the public health. Such variance will remain in effect only so long as there remains a public health need for the device and the device would not likely be made sufficiently available without the variance.

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, as amended (secs. 201-903, 52 Stat. 1040 et seq., as amended (21 U.S.C. 321-394)). All definitions in section 201 of the act shall apply to the regulations in this part.

(b) Complaint means any written, electronic, or oral communication that alleges deficiencies related to the identity, quality, durability, reliability, safety, effectiveness, or performance of a device after it is released for distribution.

(c) Component means any raw material, substance, piece, part, software, firmware, labeling, or assembly which is intended to be included as part of the finished, packaged, and labeled device.

(d) Control number means any distinctive symbols, such as a distinctive combination of letters or numbers, or both, from which the history of the manufacturing, packaging, labeling, and distribution of a unit, lot, or batch of finished devices can be determined.

(e) Design history file (DHF) means a compilation of records which describes the design history of a finished device.

(f) Design input means the physical and performance requirements of a device that are used as a basis for device design.

(g) Design output means the results of a design effort at each design phase and at the end of the total design effort. The finished design output is the basis for the device master record. The total finished design output consists of the device, its packaging and labeling, and the device master record.

(h) Design review means a documented, comprehensive, systematic examination of a design to evaluate the adequacy of the design requirements, to evaluate the capability of the design to meet these requirements, and to identify problems.

(i) Device history record (DHR) means a compilation of records containing the production history of a finished device.

(j) Device master record (DMR) means a compilation of records containing the procedures and specifications for a finished device.

(k) Establish means define, document (in writing or electronically), and implement.

(l) Finished device means any device or accessory to any device that is suitable for use or capable of functioning, whether or not it is packaged, labeled, or sterilized.

(m) Lot or batch means one or more components or finished devices that consist of a single type, model, class, size, composition, or software version that are manufactured under essentially the same conditions and that are intended to have uniform characteristics and quality within specified limits.

(n) Management with executive responsibility means those senior employees of a manufacturer who have the authority to establish or make changes to the manufacturer's quality policy and quality system.

(o) Manufacturer means any person who designs, manufactures, fabricates, assembles, or processes a finished device. Manufacturer includes but is not limited to those who perform the functions of contract sterilization, installation, relabeling, remanufacturing, repacking, or specification development, and initial distributors of foreign entities performing these functions.

(p) Manufacturing material means any material or substance used in or used to facilitate the manufacturing process, a concomitant constituent, or a byproduct constituent produced during the manufacturing process, which is present in or on the finished device as a residue or impurity not by design or intent of the manufacturer.

(q) Nonconformity means the nonfulfillment of a specified requirement.

(r) Product means components, manufacturing materials, in- process devices, finished devices, and returned devices.

(s) Quality means the totality of features and characteristics that bear on the ability of a device to satisfy fitness-for-use, including safety and performance.

(t) Quality audit means a systematic, independent examination of a manufacturer's quality system that is performed at defined intervals and at sufficient frequency to determine whether both quality system activities and the results of such activities comply with quality system procedures, that these procedures are implemented effectively, and that these procedures are suitable to achieve quality system objectives.

(u) Quality policy means the overall intentions and direction of an organization with respect to quality, as established by management with executive responsibility.

(v) Quality system means the organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes, and resources for implementing quality management.

(w) Remanufacturer means any person who processes, conditions, renovates, repackages, restores, or does any other act to a finished device that significantly changes the finished device's performance or safety specifications, or intended use.

(x) Rework means action taken on a nonconforming product so that it will fulfill the specified DMR requirements before it is released for distribution.

(y) Specification means any requirement with which a product, process, service, or other activity must conform.

(z) Validation means confirmation by examination and provision of objective evidence that the particular requirements for a specific intended use can be consistently fulfilled.

(1) Process validation means establishing by objective evidence that a process consistently produces a result or product meeting its predetermined specifications.

(2) Design validation means establishing by objective evidence that device specifications conform with user needs and intended use(s).

(aa) Verification means confirmation by examination and provision of objective evidence that specified requirements have been fulfilled.

(bb) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(cc) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

(dd) Universal product code (UPC) means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.

Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain a quality system that is appropriate for the specific medical device(s) designed or manufactured, and that meets the requirements of this part.

(a) Quality policy. Management with executive responsibility shall establish its policy and objectives for, and commitment to, quality. Management with executive responsibility shall ensure that the quality policy is understood, implemented, and maintained at all levels of the organization.

(b) Organization. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain an adequate organizational structure to ensure that devices are designed and produced in accordance with the requirements of this part.

(1) Responsibility and authority. Each manufacturer shall establish the appropriate responsibility, authority, and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform, and assess work affecting quality, and provide the independence and authority necessary to perform these tasks.

(2) Resources. Each manufacturer shall provide adequate resources, including the assignment of trained personnel, for management, performance of work, and assessment activities, including internal quality audits, to meet the requirements of this part.

(3) Management representative. Management with executive responsibility shall appoint, and document such appointment of, a member of management who, irrespective of other responsibilities, shall have established authority over and responsibility for:

(i) Ensuring that quality system requirements are effectively established and effectively maintained in accordance with this part; and

(ii) Reporting on the performance of the quality system to management with executive responsibility for review.

(c) Management review. Management with executive responsibility shall review the suitability and effectiveness of the quality system at defined intervals and with sufficient frequency according to established procedures to ensure that the quality system satisfies the requirements of this part and the manufacturer's established quality policy and objectives. The dates and results of quality system reviews shall be documented.

(d) Quality planning. Each manufacturer shall establish a quality plan which defines the quality practices, resources, and activities relevant to devices that are designed and manufactured. The manufacturer shall establish how the requirements for quality will be met.

(e) Quality system procedures. Each manufacturer shall establish quality system procedures and instructions. An outline of the structure of the documentation used in the quality system shall be established where appropriate.

Each manufacturer shall establish procedures for quality audits and conduct such audits to assure that the quality system is in compliance with the established quality system requirements and to determine the effectiveness of the quality system. Quality audits shall be conducted by individuals who do not have direct responsibility for the matters being audited. Corrective action(s), including a reaudit of deficient matters, shall be taken when necessary. A report of the results of each quality audit, and reaudit(s) where taken, shall be made and such reports shall be reviewed by management having responsibility for the matters audited. The dates and results of quality audits and reaudits shall be documented.

(a) General. Each manufacturer shall have sufficient personnel with the necessary education, background, training, and experience to assure that all activities required by this part are correctly performed.

(b) Training. Each manufacturer shall establish procedures for identifying training needs and ensure that all personnel are trained to adequately perform their assigned responsibilities. Training shall be documented.

(1) As part of their training, personnel shall be made aware of device defects which may occur from the improper performance of their specific jobs.

(2) Personnel who perform verification and validation activities shall be made aware of defects and errors that may be encountered as part of their job functions.

(a) General. (1) Each manufacturer of any class III or class II device, and the class I devices listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, shall establish and maintain procedures to control the design of the device in order to ensure that specified design requirements are met.

(2) The following class I devices are subject to design controls:

(i) Devices automated with computer software; and

(ii) The devices listed in the following chart.

(b) Design and development planning. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain plans that describe or reference the design and development activities and define responsibility for implementation. The plans shall identify and describe the interfaces with different groups or activities that provide, or result in, input to the design and development process. The plans shall be reviewed, updated, and approved as design and development evolves.

(c) Design input. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that the design requirements relating to a device are appropriate and address the intended use of the device, including the needs of the user and patient. The procedures shall include a mechanism for addressing incomplete, ambiguous, or conflicting requirements. The design input requirements shall be documented and shall be reviewed and approved by a designated individual(s). The approval, including the date and signature of the individual(s) approving the requirements, shall be documented.

(d) Design output. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for defining and documenting design output in terms that allow an adequate evaluation of conformance to design input requirements. Design output procedures shall contain or make reference to acceptance criteria and shall ensure that those design outputs that are essential for the proper functioning of the device are identified. Design output shall be documented, reviewed, and approved before release. The approval, including the date and signature of the individual(s) approving the output, shall be documented.

(e) Design review. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that formal documented reviews of the design results are planned and conducted at appropriate stages of the device's design development. The procedures shall ensure that participants at each design review include representatives of all functions concerned with the design stage being reviewed and an individual(s) who does not have direct responsibility for the design stage being reviewed, as well as any specialists needed. The results of a design review, including identification of the design, the date, and the individual(s) performing the review, shall be documented in the design history file (the DHF).

(f) Design verification. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for verifying the device design. Design verification shall confirm that the design output meets the design input requirements. The results of the design verification, including identification of the design, method(s), the date, and the individual(s) performing the verification, shall be documented in the DHF.

(g) Design validation. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for validating the device design. Design validation shall be performed under defined operating conditions on initial production units, lots, or batches, or their equivalents. Design validation shall ensure that devices conform to defined user needs and intended uses and shall include testing of production units under actual or simulated use conditions. Design validation shall include software validation and risk analysis, where appropriate. The results of the design validation, including identification of the design, method(s), the date, and the individual(s) performing the validation, shall be documented in the DHF.

(h) Design transfer. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that the device design is correctly translated into production specifications.

(i) Design changes. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for the identification, documentation, validation or where appropriate verification, review, and approval of design changes before their implementation.

(j) Design history file. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain a DHF for each type of device. The DHF shall contain or reference the records necessary to demonstrate that the design was developed in accordance with the approved design plan and the requirements of this part.

Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to control all documents that are required by this part. The procedures shall provide for the following:

(a) Document approval and distribution. Each manufacturer shall designate an individual(s) to review for adequacy and approve prior to issuance all documents established to meet the requirements of this part. The approval, including the date and signature of the individual(s) approving the document, shall be documented. Documents established to meet the requirements of this part shall be available at all locations for which they are designated, used, or otherwise necessary, and all obsolete documents shall be promptly removed from all points of use or otherwise prevented from unintended use.

(b) Document changes. Changes to documents shall be reviewed and approved by an individual(s) in the same function or organization that performed the original review and approval, unless specifically designated otherwise. Approved changes shall be communicated to the appropriate personnel in a timely manner. Each manufacturer shall maintain records of changes to documents. Change records shall include a description of the change, identification of the affected documents, the signature of the approving individual(s), the approval date, and when the change becomes effective.

Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that all purchased or otherwise received product and services conform to specified requirements.

(a) Evaluation of suppliers, contractors, and consultants. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain the requirements, including quality requirements, that must be met by suppliers, contractors, and consultants. Each manufacturer shall:

(1) Evaluate and select potential suppliers, contractors, and consultants on the basis of their ability to meet specified requirements, including quality requirements. The evaluation shall be documented.

(2) Define the type and extent of control to be exercised over the product, services, suppliers, contractors, and consultants, based on the evaluation results.

(3) Establish and maintain records of acceptable suppliers, contractors, and consultants.

(b) Purchasing data. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain data that clearly describe or reference the specified requirements, including quality requirements, for purchased or otherwise received product and services. Purchasing documents shall include, where possible, an agreement that the suppliers, contractors, and consultants agree to notify the manufacturer of changes in the product or service so that manufacturers may determine whether the changes may affect the quality of a finished device. Purchasing data shall be approved in accordance with § 820.40.

Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for identifying product during all stages of receipt, production, distribution, and installation to prevent mixups.

Each manufacturer of a device that is intended for surgical implant into the body or to support or sustain life and whose failure to perform when properly used in accordance with instructions for use provided in the labeling can be reasonably expected to result in a significant injury to the user shall establish and maintain procedures for identifying with a control number each unit, lot, or batch of finished devices and where appropriate components. The procedures shall facilitate corrective action. Such identification shall be documented in the DHR.

(a) General. Each manufacturer shall develop, conduct, control, and monitor production processes to ensure that a device conforms to its specifications. Where deviations from device specifications could occur as a result of the manufacturing process, the manufacturer shall establish and maintain process control procedures that describe any process controls necessary to ensure conformance to specifications. Where process controls are needed they shall include:

(1) Documented instructions, standard operating procedures (SOP's), and methods that define and control the manner of production;

(2) Monitoring and control of process parameters and component and device characteristics during production;

(3) Compliance with specified reference standards or codes;

(4) The approval of processes and process equipment; and

(5) Criteria for workmanship which shall be expressed in documented standards or by means of identified and approved representative samples.

(b) Production and process changes. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for changes to a specification, method, process, or procedure. Such changes shall be verified or where appropriate validated according to § 820.75, before implementation and these activities shall be documented. Changes shall be approved in accordance with § 820.40.

(c) Environmental control. Where environmental conditions could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on product quality, the manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to adequately control these environmental conditions. Environmental control system(s) shall be periodically inspected to verify that the system, including necessary equipment, is adequate and functioning properly. These activities shall be documented and reviewed.

(d) Personnel. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain requirements for the health, cleanliness, personal practices, and clothing of personnel if contact between such personnel and product or environment could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on product quality. The manufacturer shall ensure that maintenance and other personnel who are required to work temporarily under special environmental conditions are appropriately trained or supervised by a trained individual.

(e) Contamination control. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to prevent contamination of equipment or product by substances that could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on product quality.

(f) Buildings. Buildings shall be of suitable design and contain sufficient space to perform necessary operations, prevent mixups, and assure orderly handling.

(g) Equipment. Each manufacturer shall ensure that all equipment used in the manufacturing process meets specified requirements and is appropriately designed, constructed, placed, and installed to facilitate maintenance, adjustment, cleaning, and use.

(1) Maintenance schedule. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain schedules for the adjustment, cleaning, and other maintenance of equipment to ensure that manufacturing specifications are met. Maintenance activities, including the date and individual(s) performing the maintenance activities, shall be documented.

(2) Inspection. Each manufacturer shall conduct periodic inspections in accordance with established procedures to ensure adherence to applicable equipment maintenance schedules. The inspections, including the date and individual(s) conducting the inspections, shall be documented.

(3) Adjustment. Each manufacturer shall ensure that any inherent limitations or allowable tolerances are visibly posted on or near equipment requiring periodic adjustments or are readily available to personnel performing these adjustments.

(h) Manufacturing material. Where a manufacturing material could reasonably be expected to have an adverse effect on product quality, the manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for the use and removal of such manufacturing material to ensure that it is removed or limited to an amount that does not adversely affect the device's quality. The removal or reduction of such manufacturing material shall be documented.

(i) Automated processes. When computers or automated data processing systems are used as part of production or the quality system, the manufacturer shall validate computer software for its intended use according to an established protocol. All software changes shall be validated before approval and issuance. These validation activities and results shall be documented.

(a) Control of inspection, measuring, and test equipment. Each manufacturer shall ensure that all inspection, measuring, and test equipment, including mechanical, automated, or electronic inspection and test equipment, is suitable for its intended purposes and is capable of producing valid results. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that equipment is routinely calibrated, inspected, checked, and maintained. The procedures shall include provisions for handling, preservation, and storage of equipment, so that its accuracy and fitness for use are maintained. These activities shall be documented.

(b) Calibration. Calibration procedures shall include specific directions and limits for accuracy and precision. When accuracy and precision limits are not met, there shall be provisions for remedial action to reestablish the limits and to evaluate whether there was any adverse effect on the device's quality. These activities shall be documented.

(1) Calibration standards. Calibration standards used for inspection, measuring, and test equipment shall be traceable to national or international standards. If national or international standards are not practical or available, the manufacturer shall use an independent reproducible standard. If no applicable standard exists, the manufacturer shall establish and maintain an in-house standard.

(2) Calibration records. The equipment identification, calibration dates, the individual performing each calibration, and the next calibration date shall be documented. These records shall be displayed on or near each piece of equipment or shall be readily available to the personnel using such equipment and to the individuals responsible for calibrating the equipment.

(a) Where the results of a process cannot be fully verified by subsequent inspection and test, the process shall be validated with a high degree of assurance and approved according to established procedures. The validation activities and results, including the date and signature of the individual(s) approving the validation and where appropriate the major equipment validated, shall be documented.

(b) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and control of process parameters for validated processes to ensure that the specified requirements continue to be met.

(1) Each manufacturer shall ensure that validated processes are performed by qualified individual(s).

(2) For validated processes, the monitoring and control methods and data, the date performed, and, where appropriate, the individual(s) performing the process or the major equipment used shall be documented.

(c) When changes or process deviations occur, the manufacturer shall review and evaluate the process and perform revalidation where appropriate. These activities shall be documented.

(a) General. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for acceptance activities. Acceptance activities include inspections, tests, or other verification activities.

(b) Receiving acceptance activities. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for acceptance of incoming product. Incoming product shall be inspected, tested, or otherwise verified as conforming to specified requirements. Acceptance or rejection shall be documented.

(c) In-process acceptance activities. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain acceptance procedures, where appropriate, to ensure that specified requirements for in-process product are met. Such procedures shall ensure that in-process product is controlled until the required inspection and tests or other verification activities have been completed, or necessary approvals are received, and are documented.

(d) Final acceptance activities. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for finished device acceptance to ensure that each production run, lot, or batch of finished devices meets acceptance criteria. Finished devices shall be held in quarantine or otherwise adequately controlled until released. Finished devices shall not be released for distribution until:

(1) The activities required in the DMR are completed;

(2) the associated data and documentation is reviewed;

(3) the release is authorized by the signature of a designated individual(s); and

(4) the authorization is dated.

(e) Acceptance records. Each manufacturer shall document acceptance activities required by this part. These records shall include:

(1) The acceptance activities performed;

(2) the dates acceptance activities are performed;

(3) the results;

(4) the signature of the individual(s) conducting the acceptance activities; and

(5) where appropriate the equipment used. These records shall be part of the DHR.

Each manufacturer shall identify by suitable means the acceptance status of product, to indicate the conformance or nonconformance of product with acceptance criteria. The identification of acceptance status shall be maintained throughout manufacturing, packaging, labeling, installation, and servicing of the product to ensure that only product which has passed the required acceptance activities is distributed, used, or installed.

(a) Control of nonconforming product. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to control product that does not conform to specified requirements. The procedures shall address the identification, documentation, evaluation, segregation, and disposition of nonconforming product. The evaluation of nonconformance shall include a determination of the need for an investigation and notification of the persons or organizations responsible for the nonconformance. The evaluation and any investigation shall be documented.

(b) Nonconformity review and disposition. (1) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures that define the responsibility for review and the authority for the disposition of nonconforming product. The procedures shall set forth the review and disposition process. Disposition of nonconforming product shall be documented. Documentation shall include the justification for use of nonconforming product and the signature of the individual(s) authorizing the use.

(2) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for rework, to include retesting and reevaluation of the nonconforming product after rework, to ensure that the product meets its current approved specifications. Rework and reevaluation activities, including a determination of any adverse effect from the rework upon the product, shall be documented in the DHR.

(a) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for implementing corrective and preventive action. The procedures shall include requirements for:

(1) Analyzing processes, work operations, concessions, quality audit reports, quality records, service records, complaints, returned product, and other sources of quality data to identify existing and potential causes of nonconforming product, or other quality problems. Appropriate statistical methodology shall be employed where necessary to detect recurring quality problems;

(2) Investigating the cause of nonconformities relating to product, processes, and the quality system;

(3) Identifying the action(s) needed to correct and prevent recurrence of nonconforming product and other quality problems;

(4) Verifying or validating the corrective and preventive action to ensure that such action is effective and does not adversely affect the finished device;

(5) Implementing and recording changes in methods and procedures needed to correct and prevent identified quality problems;

(6) Ensuring that information related to quality problems or nonconforming product is disseminated to those directly responsible for assuring the quality of such product or the prevention of such problems; and

(7) Submitting relevant information on identified quality problems, as well as corrective and preventive actions, for management review.

(b) All activities required under this section, and their results, shall be documented.

Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to control labeling activities.

(a) Label integrity. Labels shall be printed and applied so as to remain legible and affixed during the customary conditions of processing, storage, handling, distribution, and where appropriate use.

(b) Labeling inspection. Labeling shall not be released for storage or use until a designated individual(s) has examined the labeling for accuracy including, where applicable, the correct unique device identifier (UDI) or universal product code (UPC), expiration date, control number, storage instructions, handling instructions, and any additional processing instructions. The release, including the date and signature of the individual(s) performing the examination, shall be documented in the DHR.

(c) Labeling storage. Each manufacturer shall store labeling in a manner that provides proper identification and is designed to prevent mixups.

(d) Labeling operations. Each manufacturer shall control labeling and packaging operations to prevent labeling mixups. The label and labeling used for each production unit, lot, or batch shall be documented in the DHR.

(e) Control number. Where a control number is required by § 820.65, that control number shall be on or shall accompany the device through distribution.

Each manufacturer shall ensure that device packaging and shipping containers are designed and constructed to protect the device from alteration or damage during the customary conditions of processing, storage, handling, and distribution.

Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that mixups, damage, deterioration, contamination, or other adverse effects to product do not occur during handling.

(a) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for the control of storage areas and stock rooms for product to prevent mixups, damage, deterioration, contamination, or other adverse effects pending use or distribution and to ensure that no obsolete, rejected, or deteriorated product is used or distributed. When the quality of product deteriorates over time, it shall be stored in a manner to facilitate proper stock rotation, and its condition shall be assessed as appropriate.

(b) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures that describe the methods for authorizing receipt from and dispatch to storage areas and stock rooms.

(a) Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for control and distribution of finished devices to ensure that only those devices approved for release are distributed and that purchase orders are reviewed to ensure that ambiguities and errors are resolved before devices are released for distribution. Where a device's fitness for use or quality deteriorates over time, the procedures shall ensure that expired devices or devices deteriorated beyond acceptable fitness for use are not distributed.

(b) Each manufacturer shall maintain distribution records which include or refer to the location of:

(1) The name and address of the initial consignee;

(2) The identification and quantity of devices shipped;

(3) The date shipped; and

(4) Any control number(s) used.

(a) Each manufacturer of a device requiring installation shall establish and maintain adequate installation and inspection instructions, and where appropriate test procedures. Instructions and procedures shall include directions for ensuring proper installation so that the device will perform as intended after installation. The manufacturer shall distribute the instructions and procedures with the device or otherwise make them available to the person(s) installing the device.

(b) The person installing the device shall ensure that the installation, inspection, and any required testing are performed in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and procedures and shall document the inspection and any test results to demonstrate proper installation.

All records required by this part shall be maintained at the manufacturing establishment or other location that is reasonably accessible to responsible officials of the manufacturer and to employees of FDA designated to perform inspections. Such records, including those not stored at the inspected establishment, shall be made readily available for review and copying by FDA employee(s). Such records shall be legible and shall be stored to minimize deterioration and to prevent loss. Those records stored in automated data processing systems shall be backed up.

(a) Confidentiality. Records deemed confidential by the manufacturer may be marked to aid FDA in determining whether information may be disclosed under the public information regulation in part 20 of this chapter.

(b) Record retention period. All records required by this part shall be retained for a period of time equivalent to the design and expected life of the device, but in no case less than 2 years from the date of release for commercial distribution by the manufacturer.

(c) Exceptions. This section does not apply to the reports required by § 820.20(c) Management review, § 820.22 Quality audits, and supplier audit reports used to meet the requirements of § 820.50(a) Evaluation of suppliers, contractors, and consultants, but does apply to procedures established under these provisions. Upon request of a designated employee of FDA, an employee in management with executive responsibility shall certify in writing that the management reviews and quality audits required under this part, and supplier audits where applicable, have been performed and documented, the dates on which they were performed, and that any required corrective action has been undertaken.

Each manufacturer shall maintain device master records (DMR's). Each manufacturer shall ensure that each DMR is prepared and approved in accordance with § 820.40. The DMR for each type of device shall include, or refer to the location of, the following information:

(a) Device specifications including appropriate drawings, composition, formulation, component specifications, and software specifications;

(b) Production process specifications including the appropriate equipment specifications, production methods, production procedures, and production environment specifications;

(c) Quality assurance procedures and specifications including acceptance criteria and the quality assurance equipment to be used;

(d) Packaging and labeling specifications, including methods and processes used; and

(e) Installation, maintenance, and servicing procedures and methods.

Each manufacturer shall maintain device history records (DHR's). Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that DHR's for each batch, lot, or unit are maintained to demonstrate that the device is manufactured in accordance with the DMR and the requirements of this part. The DHR shall include, or refer to the location of, the following information:

(a) The dates of manufacture;

(b) The quantity manufactured;

(c) The quantity released for distribution;

(d) The acceptance records which demonstrate the device is manufactured in accordance with the DMR;

(e) The primary identification label and labeling used for each production unit; and

(f) Any unique device identifier (UDI) or universal product code (UPC), and any other device identification(s) and control number(s) used.

Each manufacturer shall maintain a quality system record (QSR). The QSR shall include, or refer to the location of, procedures and the documentation of activities required by this part that are not specific to a particular type of device(s), including, but not limited to, the records required by § 820.20. Each manufacturer shall ensure that the QSR is prepared and approved in accordance with § 820.40.

(a) Each manufacturer shall maintain complaint files. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for receiving, reviewing, and evaluating complaints by a formally designated unit. Such procedures shall ensure that:

(1) All complaints are processed in a uniform and timely manner;

(2) Oral complaints are documented upon receipt; and

(3) Complaints are evaluated to determine whether the complaint represents an event which is required to be reported to FDA under part 803 of this chapter, Medical Device Reporting.

(b) Each manufacturer shall review and evaluate all complaints to determine whether an investigation is necessary. When no investigation is made, the manufacturer shall maintain a record that includes the reason no investigation was made and the name of the individual responsible for the decision not to investigate.

(c) Any complaint involving the possible failure of a device, labeling, or packaging to meet any of its specifications shall be reviewed, evaluated, and investigated, unless such investigation has already been performed for a similar complaint and another investigation is not necessary.

(d) Any complaint that represents an event which must be reported to FDA under part 803 of this chapter shall be promptly reviewed, evaluated, and investigated by a designated individual(s) and shall be maintained in a separate portion of the complaint files or otherwise clearly identified. In addition to the information required by § 820.198(e), records of investigation under this paragraph shall include a determination of:

(1) Whether the device failed to meet specifications;

(2) Whether the device was being used for treatment or diagnosis; and

(3) The relationship, if any, of the device to the reported incident or adverse event.

(e) When an investigation is made under this section, a record of the investigation shall be maintained by the formally designated unit identified in paragraph (a) of this section. The record of investigation shall include:

(1) The name of the device;

(2) The date the complaint was received;

(3) Any unique device identifier (UDI) or universal product code (UPC), and any other device identification(s) and control number(s) used;

(4) The name, address, and phone number of the complainant;

(5) The nature and details of the complaint;

(6) The dates and results of the investigation;

(7) Any corrective action taken; and

(8) Any reply to the complainant.

(f) When the manufacturer's formally designated complaint unit is located at a site separate from the manufacturing establishment, the investigated complaint(s) and the record(s) of investigation shall be reasonably accessible to the manufacturing establishment.

(g) If a manufacturer's formally designated complaint unit is located outside of the United States, records required by this section shall be reasonably accessible in the United States at either:

(1) A location in the United States where the manufacturer's records are regularly kept; or

(2) The location of the initial distributor.

(a) Where servicing is a specified requirement, each manufacturer shall establish and maintain instructions and procedures for performing and verifying that the servicing meets the specified requirements.

(b) Each manufacturer shall analyze service reports with appropriate statistical methodology in accordance with § 820.100.

(c) Each manufacturer who receives a service report that represents an event which must be reported to FDA under part 803 of this chapter shall automatically consider the report a complaint and shall process it in accordance with the requirements of § 820.198.

(d) Service reports shall be documented and shall include:

(1) The name of the device serviced;

(2) Any unique device identifier (UDI) or universal product code (UPC), and any other device identification(s) and control number(s) used;

(3) The date of service;

(4) The individual(s) servicing the device;

(5) The service performed; and

(6) The test and inspection data.

(a) Where appropriate, each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures for identifying valid statistical techniques required for establishing, controlling, and verifying the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.

(b) Sampling plans, when used, shall be written and based on a valid statistical rationale. Each manufacturer shall establish and maintain procedures to ensure that sampling methods are adequate for their intended use and to ensure that when changes occur the sampling plans are reviewed. These activities shall be documented.

(a) The regulations in this part implement section 519(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act), which provides that the Food and Drug Administration may require a manufacturer to adopt a method of tracking a class II or class III device, if the device meets one of the following three criteria and FDA issues an order to the manufacturer: the failure of the device would be reasonably likely to have serious adverse health consequences; or the device is intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year; or the device is a life-sustaining or life-supporting device used outside a device user facility. A device that meets one of these criteria and is the subject of an FDA order must comply with this part and is referred to, in this part, as a “tracked device.”

(b) These regulations are intended to ensure that tracked devices can be traced from the device manufacturing facility to the person for whom the device is indicated, that is, the patient. Effective tracking of devices from the manufacturing facility, through the distributor network (including distributors, retailers, rental firms and other commercial enterprises, device user facilities, and licensed practitioners) and, ultimately, to the patient is necessary for the effectiveness of remedies prescribed by the act, such as patient notification (section 518(a) of the act) or device recall (section 518(e) of the act). Although these regulations do not preclude a manufacturer from involving outside organizations in that manufacturer's device tracking effort, the legal responsibility for complying with this part rests with manufacturers who are subject to tracking orders, and that responsibility cannot be altered, modified, or in any way abrogated by contracts or other agreements.

(c) The primary burden for ensuring that the tracking system works rests upon the manufacturer. A manufacturer or any other person, including a distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor, who distributes a device subject to tracking, who fails to comply with any applicable requirement of section 519(e) of the act or of this part, or any person who causes such failure, misbrands the device within the meaning of section 502(t)(2) of the act and commits a prohibited act within the meaning of sections 301(e) and 301(q)(1)(B) of the act.

(d) Any person subject to this part who permanently discontinues doing business is required to notify FDA at the time the person notifies any government agency, court, or supplier, and provide FDA with a complete set of its tracking records and information. However, if a person ceases distribution of a tracked device but continues to do other business, that person continues to be responsible for compliance with this part unless another person, affirmatively and in writing, assumes responsibility for continuing the tracking of devices previously distributed under this part. Further, if a person subject to this part goes out of business completely, but other persons acquire the right to manufacture or distribute tracked devices, those other persons are deemed to be responsible for continuing the tracking responsibility of the previous person under this part.

(a) A manufacturer, importer, or distributor may seek an exemption or variance from one or more requirements of this part.

(b) A request for an exemption or variance shall be submitted in the form of a petition under § 10.30 of this chapter and shall comply with the requirements set out therein, except that a response shall be issued in 90 days. The Director or Deputy Directors, CDRH, or the Director, Office of Compliance, CDRH, shall issue responses to requests under this section. The petition shall also contain the following:

(1) The name of the device and device class and representative labeling showing the intended use(s) of the device;

(2) The reasons that compliance with the tracking requirements of this part is unnecessary;

(3) A complete description of alternative steps that are available, or that the petitioner has already taken, to ensure that an effective tracking system is in place; and

(4) Other information justifying the exemption or variance.

(c) An exemption or variance is not effective until the Director, Office of Compliance, CDRH, approves the request under § 10.30(e)(2)(i) of this chapter.

The following definitions and terms apply to this part:

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 321 et seq., as amended.

(b) Importer means the initial distributor of an imported device who is subject to a tracking order. “Importer” does not include anyone who only furthers the marketing, e.g., brokers, jobbers, or warehousers.

(c) Manufacturer means any person, including any importer, repacker and/or relabeler, who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, or processes a device or engages in any of the activities described in § 807.3(d) of this chapter.

(d) Device failure means the failure of a device to perform or function as intended, including any deviations from the device's performance specifications or intended use.

(e) Serious adverse health consequences means any significant adverse experience related to a device, including device-related events which are life-threatening or which involve permanent or long-term injuries or illnesses.

(f) Device intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year means a device that is intended to be placed into a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body for more than 1 year to continuously assist, restore, or replace the function of an organ system or structure of the human body throughout the useful life of the device. The term does not include a device that is intended and used only for temporary purposes or that is intended for explantation in 1 year or less.

(g) Life-supporting or life-sustaining device used outside a device user facility means a device which is essential, or yields information that is essential, to the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life that is intended for use outside a hospital, nursing home, ambulatory surgical facility, or diagnostic or outpatient treatment facility. Physicians' offices are not device user facilities and, therefore, devices used therein are subject to tracking if they otherwise satisfy the statutory and regulatory criteria.

(h) Distributor means any person who furthers the distribution of a device from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes delivery or sale to the ultimate user, i.e., the final or multiple distributor, but who does not repackage or otherwise change the container, wrapper, or labeling of the device or device package.

(i) Final distributor means any person who distributes a tracked device intended for use by a single patient over the useful life of the device to the patient. This term includes, but is not limited to, licensed practitioners, retail pharmacies, hospitals, and other types of device user facilities.

(j) Distributes means any distribution of a tracked device, including the charitable distribution of a tracked device. This term does not include the distribution of a device under an effective investigational device exemption in accordance with section 520(g) of the act and part 812 of this chapter or the distribution of a device for teaching, law enforcement, research, or analysis as specified in § 801.125 of this chapter.

(k) Multiple distributor means any device user facility, rental company, or any other entity that distributes a life-sustaining or life-supporting device intended for use by more than one patient over the useful life of the device.

(l) Licensed practitioner means a physician, dentist, or other health care practitioner licensed by the law of the State in which he or she practices to use or order the use of the tracked device.

(m) Any term defined in section 201 of the act shall have the same definition in this part.

(n) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(o) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A unique device identifier is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

For purposes of this part, the importer of a tracked device shall be considered the manufacturer and shall be required to comply with all requirements of this part applicable to manufacturers. Importers must keep all information required under this part in the United States.

(a) A manufacturer of any class II or class III device that fits within one of the three criteria within § 821.1(a) must track that device in accordance with this part, if FDA issues a tracking order to that manufacturer.

(b) When responding to premarket notification submissions and premarket approval applications, FDA will notify the sponsor by issuing an order that states that FDA believes the device meets the criteria of section 519(e)(1) of the act and, by virtue of the order, the sponsor must track the device.

(a) A manufacturer of a tracked device shall adopt a method of tracking for each such type of device that it distributes that enables a manufacturer to provide FDA with the following information in writing for each tracked device distributed:

(1) Except as required by order under section 518(e) of the act, within 3 working days of a request from FDA, prior to the distribution of a tracked device to a patient, the name, address, and telephone number of the distributor, multiple distributor, or final distributor holding the device for distribution and the location of the device;

(2) Within 10 working days of a request from FDA for tracked devices that are intended for use by a single patient over the life of the device, after distribution to or implantation in a patient:

(i) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier necessary to provide for effective tracking of the devices;

(ii) The date the device was shipped by the manufacturer;

(iii) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient receiving the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);

(iv) The date the device was provided to the patient;

(v) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician;

(vi) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the physician regularly following the patient if different than the prescribing physician; and

(vii) If applicable, the date the device was explanted and the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the explanting physician; the date of the patient's death; or the date the device was returned to the manufacturer, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.

(3) Except as required by order under section 518(e) of the act, within 10 working days of a request from FDA for tracked devices that are intended for use by more than one patient, after the distribution of the device to the multiple distributor:

(i) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier necessary to provide for effective tracking of the devices;

(ii) The date the device was shipped by the manufacturer;

(iii) The name, address, and telephone number of the multiple distributor;

(iv) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient using the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);

(v) The location of the device;

(vi) The date the device was provided for use by the patient;

(vii) The name, address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician; and

(viii) If and when applicable, the date the device was returned to the manufacturer, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.

(b) A manufacturer of a tracked device shall keep current records in accordance with its standard operating procedure of the information identified in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2) and (a)(3)(i) through (a)(3)(iii) of this section on each tracked device released for distribution for as long as such device is in use or in distribution for use.

(c) A manufacturer of a tracked device shall establish a written standard operating procedure for the collection, maintenance, and auditing of the data specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. A manufacturer shall make this standard operating procedure available to FDA upon request. A manufacturer shall incorporate the following into the standard operating procedure:

(1) Data collection and recording procedures, which shall include a procedure for recording when data which is required under this part is missing and could not be collected and the reason why such required data is missing and could not be collected;

(2) A method for recording all modifications or changes to the tracking system or to the data collected and maintained under the tracking system, reasons for any modification or change, and dates of any modification or change. Modification and changes included under this requirement include modifications to the data (including termination of tracking), the data format, the recording system, and the file maintenance procedures system; and

(3) A quality assurance program that includes an audit procedure to be run for each device product subject to tracking, at not less than 6-month intervals for the first 3 years of distribution and at least once a year thereafter. This audit procedure shall provide for statistically relevant sampling of the data collected to ensure the accuracy of data and performance testing of the functioning of the tracking system.

(d) When a manufacturer becomes aware that a distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor has not collected, maintained, or furnished any record or information required by this part, the manufacturer shall notify the FDA district office responsible for the area in which the distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor is located of the failure of such persons to comply with the requirements of this part. Manufacturers shall have taken reasonable steps to obtain compliance by the distributor, multiple distributor, or final distributor in question before notifying FDA.

(e) A manufacturer may petition for an exemption or variance from one or more requirements of this part according to the procedures in § 821.2 of this chapter.

(a) A distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor of any tracked device shall, upon purchasing or otherwise acquiring any interest in such a device, promptly provide the manufacturer tracking the device with the following information:

(1) The name and address of the distributor, final distributor or multiple distributor;

(2) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier used by the manufacturer to track the device;

(3) The date the device was received;

(4) The person from whom the device was received;

(5) If and when applicable, the date the device was explanted, the date of the patient's death, or the date the device was returned to the distributor, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.

(b) A final distributor, upon sale or other distribution of a tracked device for use in or by the patient, shall promptly provide the manufacturer tracking the device with the following information:

(1) The name and address of the final distributor,

(2) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier used by the manufacturer to track the device;

(3) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient receiving the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);

(4) The date the device was provided to the patient or for use in the patient;

(5) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician;

(6) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the physician regularly following the patient if different than the prescribing physician; and

(7) When applicable, the date the device was explanted and the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the explanting physician, the date of the patient's death, or the date the device was returned to the manufacturer, permanently retired from use, or otherwise permanently disposed of.

(c)(1) A multiple distributor shall keep written records of the following each time such device is distributed for use by a patient:

(i) The unique device identifier (UDI), lot number, batch number, model number, or serial number of the device or other identifier used by the manufacturer to track the device;

(ii) The name, address, telephone number, and social security number (if available) of the patient using the device;

(iii) The location of the device, unless not released by the patient under § 821.55(a);

(iv) The date the device was provided for use by the patient;

(v) The name, address, and telephone number of the prescribing physician;

(vi) The name, address, and telephone number of the physician regularly following the patient if different than the prescribing physician; and

(vii) When applicable, the date the device was permanently retired from use or otherwise permanently disposed of.

(2) Except as required by order under section 518(e) of the act, any person who is a multiple distributor subject to the recordkeeping requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall, within 5 working days of a request from the manufacturer or within 10 working days of a request from FDA for the information identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provide such information to the manufacturer or FDA.

(d) A distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor shall make any records required to be kept under this part available to the manufacturer of the tracked device for audit upon written request by an authorized representative of the manufacturer.

(e) A distributor, final distributor, or multiple distributor may petition for an exemption or variance from one or more requirements of this part according to the procedures in § 821.2.

(a) Manufacturers, distributors, multiple distributors, and final distributors shall, upon the presentation by an FDA representative of official credentials and the issuance of Form FDA 482 at the initiation of an inspection of an establishment or person under section 704 of the act, make each record and all information required to be collected and maintained under this part and all records and information related to the events and persons identified in such records available to FDA personnel.

(b) Records and information referenced in paragraph (a) of this section shall be available to FDA personnel for purposes of reviewing, copying, or any other use related to the enforcement of the act and this part. Records required to be kept by this part shall be kept in a centralized point for each manufacturer or distributor within the United States.

(a) Any patient receiving a device subject to tracking requirements under this part may refuse to release, or refuse permission to release, the patient's name, address, telephone number, and social security number, or other identifying information for the purpose of tracking.

(b) Records and other information submitted to FDA under this part shall be protected from public disclosure to the extent permitted under part 20 of this chapter, and in accordance with § 20.63 of this chapter, information contained in such records that would identify patient or research subjects shall not be available for public disclosure except as provided in those parts.

(c) Patient names or other identifiers may be disclosed to a manufacturer or other person subject to this part or to a physician when the health or safety of the patient requires that such persons have access to the information. Such notification will be pursuant to agreement that the record or information will not be further disclosed except as the health aspects of the patient requires. Such notification does not constitute public disclosure and will not trigger the availability of the same information to the public generally.

Persons required to maintain records under this part shall maintain such records for the useful life of each tracked device they manufacture or distribute. The useful life of a device is the time a device is in use or in distribution for use. For example, a record may be retired if the person maintaining the record becomes aware of the fact that the device is no longer in use, has been explanted, returned to the manufacturer, or the patient has died.

This part implements section 522 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) by providing procedures and requirements for postmarket surveillance of class II and class III devices that meet any of the following criteria:

(a) Failure of the device would be reasonably likely to have serious adverse health consequences;

(b) The device is intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year; or

(c) The device is intended to be used outside a user facility to support or sustain life. If you fail to comply with requirements that we order under section 522 of the act and this part, your device is considered misbranded under section 502(t)(3) of the act and you are in violation of section 301(q)(1)(C) of the act.

The purpose of this part is to implement our postmarket surveillance authority to maximize the likelihood that postmarket surveillance plans will result in the collection of useful data. These data can reveal unforeseen adverse events, the actual rate of anticipated adverse events, or other information necessary to protect the public health.

Some of the terms we use in this part are specific to postmarket surveillance and reflect the language used in the statute (law). Other terms are more general and reflect our interpretation of the law. This section of the part defines the following terms:

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. 301 et seq., as amended.

(b) Designated person means the individual who conducts or supervises the conduct of your postmarket surveillance. If your postmarket surveillance plan includes a team of investigators, as defined below, the designated person is the responsible leader of that team.

(c) Device failure means a device does not perform or function as intended, and includes any deviation from the device's performance specifications or intended use.

(d) General plan guidance means agency guidance that provides information about the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance, the submission of a plan to us for approval, the content of the submission, and the conduct and reporting requirements of the surveillance.

(e) Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

(f) Investigator means an individual who collects data or information in support of a postmarket surveillance plan.

(g) Life-supporting or life-sustaining device used outside a device user facility means that a device is essential to, or yields information essential to, the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life and is used outside a hospital, nursing home, ambulatory surgical facility, or diagnostic or outpatient treatment facility. A physician's office is not a device user facility.

(h) Manufacturer means any person, including any importer, repacker, and/or relabeler, who manufactures, prepares, propagates, compounds, assembles, processes a device, or engages in any of the activities described in § 807.3(d) of this chapter.

(i) Postmarket surveillance means the active, systematic, scientifically valid collection, analysis, and interpretation of data or other information about a marketed device.

(j) Prospective surveillance means that the subjects are identified at the beginning of the surveillance and data or other information will be collected from that time forward (as opposed to retrospective surveillance).

(k) Serious adverse health consequences means any significant adverse experience related to a device, including device-related events that are life-threatening or that involve permanent or long-term injuries or illnesses.

(l) Specific guidance means guidance that provides information regarding postmarket surveillance for specific types or categories of devices or specific postmarket surveillance issues. This type of guidance may be used to supplement general guidance and may address such topics as the type of surveillance approach that is appropriate for the device and the postmarket surveillance question, sample size, or specific reporting requirements.

(m) Surveillance question means the issue or issues to be addressed by the postmarket surveillance.

(n) Unforeseen adverse event means any serious adverse health consequence that either is not addressed in the labeling of the device or occurs at a rate higher than anticipated.

(o) Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20 of this chapter. A UDI is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

If we have ordered you to conduct postmarket surveillance of a medical device under section 522 of the act, this part applies to you. We have the authority to order postmarket surveillance of any class II or class III medical device, including a device reviewed under the licensing provisions of section 351 of the Public Health Service Act, that meets any of the following criteria:

(a) Failure of the device would be reasonably likely to have serious adverse health consequences;

(b) The device is intended to be implanted in the human body for more than 1 year; or

(c) The device is intended to be used to support or sustain life and to be used outside a user facility.

We will send you a letter (the postmarket surveillance order) notifying you of the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance. Before we send the order, or as part of the order, we may require that you submit information about your device that will allow us better to define the scope of a surveillance order. We will specify the device(s) subject to the surveillance order and the reason that we are requiring postmarket surveillance of the device under section 522 of the act. We will also provide you with any general or specific guidance that is available to help you develop your plan for conducting postmarket surveillance.

We will notify you as soon as we have determined that postmarket surveillance of your device is necessary, based on the identification of a surveillance question. This may occur during the review of a marketing application for your device, as your device goes to market, or after your device has been marketed for a period of time.

(a) If you do not agree with our decision to order postmarket surveillance for a particular device, you may request review of our decision by:

(1) Requesting a meeting with the Director, Office of Surveillance and Biometrics, who generally issues the order for postmarket surveillance;

(2) Seeking internal review of the order under § 10.75 of this chapter;

(3) Requesting an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter; or

(4) Requesting review by the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee.

(b) You may obtain guidance documents that discuss these mechanisms from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH's) Web site (http://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CDRH/CDRHOmbudsman/default.htm.).

You must submit your plan to conduct postmarket surveillance within 30 days of the date you receive the postmarket surveillance order. For devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, send three copies of your submission to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. For devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, send three copies of your submission to the Central Document Room, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 5901-B, Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266. For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, send three copies of your submission to the Document Mail Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. G609, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. When we receive your original submission, we will send you an acknowledgment letter identifying the unique document number assigned to your submission. You must use this number in any correspondence related to this submission.

Your submission must include the following:

(a) Organizational/administrative information:

(1) Your name and address;

(2) Generic and trade names of your device;

(3) Name and address of the contact person for the submission;

(4) Premarket application/submission number and device identifiers for your device;

(5) Table of contents identifying the page numbers for each section of the submission;

(6) Description of the device (this may be incorporated by reference to the appropriate premarket application/submission);

(7) Product codes and a list of all relevant model numbers; and

(8) Indications for use and claims for the device;

(b) Postmarket surveillance plan;

(c) Designated person information;

(1) Name, address, and telephone number; and

(2) Experience and qualifications.

Your surveillance plan must include a discussion of:

(a) The plan objective(s) addressing the surveillance question(s) identified in our order;

(b) The subject of the study, e.g., patients, the device, animals;

(c) The variables and endpoints that will be used to answer the surveillance question, e.g., clinical parameters or outcomes;

(d) The surveillance approach or methodology to be used;

(e) Sample size and units of observation;

(f) The investigator agreement, if applicable;

(g) Sources of data, e.g., hospital records;

(h) The data collection plan and forms;

(i) The consent document, if applicable;

(j) Institutional Review Board information, if applicable;

(k) The patient followup plan, if applicable;

(l) The procedures for monitoring conduct and progress of the surveillance;

(m) An estimate of the duration of surveillance;

(n) All data analyses and statistical tests planned;

(o) The content and timing of reports.

You must design your surveillance to address the postmarket surveillance question identified in the order you received. You should consider what, if any, patient protection measures should be incorporated into your plan. You should also consider the function, operating characteristics, and intended use of your device when designing a surveillance approach.

Guidance documents that discuss our current thinking on preparing a postmarket surveillance submission and designing a postmarket surveillance plan are available on the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's Web site and from the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Office of Surveillance and Biometrics, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, rm. 3219, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Guidance documents represent our current interpretation of, or policy on, a regulatory issue. They do not establish legally enforceable rights or responsibilities and do not legally bind you or FDA. You may choose to use an approach other than the one set forth in a guidance document, as long as your alternative approach complies with the relevant statutes (laws) and regulations. If you wish, we will meet with you to discuss whether an alternative approach you are considering will satisfy the requirements of the act and regulations.

Yes, you may reference information that you have submitted in premarket submissions as well as other postmarket surveillance submissions. You must specify the information to be incorporated and the document number and pages where the information is located.

The length of postmarket surveillance will depend on the postmarket surveillance question identified in our order. We may order prospective surveillance for a period up to 36 months; longer periods require your agreement. If we believe that a prospective period of greater than 36 months is necessary to address the surveillance question, and you do not agree, we will use the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel to resolve the matter. You may obtain guidance regarding dispute resolution procedures from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH') Web site (http://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/CentersOffices/OfficeofMedicalProductsandTobacco/CDRH/CDRHOmbudsman/default.htm.). The 36-month period refers to the surveillance period, not the length of time from the issuance of the order.

First, we will determine that the submission is administratively complete. Then, in accordance with the law, we must determine whether the designated person has appropriate qualifications and experience to conduct the surveillance and whether the surveillance plan will result in the collection of useful data that will answer the surveillance question.

We will review your submission within 60 days of receipt.

We will send you a letter notifying you of our decision and identifying any action you must take.

The failure to have an approved postmarket surveillance plan or failure to conduct postmarket surveillance in accordance with the approved plan constitutes failure to comply with section 522 of the act. Your failure would be a prohibited act under section 301(q)(1)(C) of the act, and your device would be misbranded under section 502(t)(3) of the act. We have the authority to initiate actions against products that are adulterated or misbranded, and against persons who commit prohibited acts. Adulterated or misbranded devices can be seized. Persons who commit prohibited acts can be enjoined from committing such acts, required to pay civil money penalties, or prosecuted.

You must receive our approval in writing before making changes in your plan that will affect the nature or validity of the data collected in accordance with the plan. To obtain our approval, you must submit three copies of the request to make the proposed change and revised postmarket surveillance plan to the applicable address listed in § 822.8. You may reference information already submitted in accordance with § 822.14. In your cover letter, you must identify your submission as a supplement and cite the unique document number that we assigned in our acknowledgment letter for your original submission, specifically identify the changes to the plan, and identify the reasons and justification for making the changes. You must report changes in your plan that will not affect the nature or validity of the data collected in accordance with the plan in the next interim report required by your approval order.

(a) If you disagree with us about the content of your plan or if we disapprove your plan, or if you believe there is a less burdensome approach that will answer the surveillance question, you may request review of our decision by:

(1) Requesting a meeting with the Director, Office of Surveillance and Biometrics, Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), who generally issues the order for postmarket surveillance;

(2) Seeking internal review of the order under § 10.75 of this chapter;

(3) Requesting an informal hearing under part 16 of this chapter; or

(4) Requesting review by the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee.

(b) You may obtain guidance documents that discuss these mechanisms from the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH's) Web site.

We consider the content of your submission confidential until we have approved your postmarket surveillance plan. After we have approved your plan, the contents of the original submission and any amendments, supplements, or reports may be disclosed in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act. We will continue to protect trade secret and confidential commercial information after your plan is approved. We will not disclose information identifying individual patients. You may wish to indicate in your submission which information you consider trade secret or confidential commercial.

You must submit your plan to conduct postmarket surveillance to us within 30 days from receipt of the order (letter) notifying you that you are required to conduct postmarket surveillance of a device.

After we have approved your plan, you must conduct the postmarket surveillance of your device in accordance with your approved plan. This means that you must ensure that:

(a) Postmarket surveillance is initiated in a timely manner;

(b) The surveillance is conducted with due diligence;

(c) The data identified in the plan is collected;

(d) Any reports required as part of your approved plan are submitted to us in a timely manner; and

(e) Any information that we request prior to your submission of a report or in response to our review of a report is provided in a timely manner.

You must notify us within 30 days of any change in ownership of your company. Your notification should identify any changes to the name or address of the company, the contact person, or the designated person (as defined in § 822.3(b)). Your obligation to conduct postmarket surveillance will generally transfer to the new owner, unless you and the new owner have both agreed that you will continue to conduct the surveillance. If you will continue to conduct the postmarket surveillance, you still must notify us of the change in ownership.

You must notify us within 30 days of the date of your decision to close your business. You should provide the expected date of closure and discuss your plans to complete or terminate postmarket surveillance of your device. You must also identify who will retain the records related to the surveillance (described in subpart G of this part) and where the records will be kept.

You must continue to conduct postmarket surveillance in accordance with your approved plan even if you no longer market the device. You may request that we allow you to terminate postmarket surveillance or modify your postmarket surveillance because you no longer market the device. We will make these decisions on a case-by-case basis, and you must continue to conduct the postmarket surveillance unless we notify you that you may stop your surveillance study.

You may request that we waive any specific requirement of this part. You may submit your request, with supporting documentation, separately or as a part of your postmarket surveillance submission to the address in § 822.8.

You may request exemption from the requirement to conduct postmarket surveillance for your device or any specific model of that device at any time. You must comply with the requirements of this part unless and until we grant an exemption for your device. Your request for exemption must explain why you believe we should exempt the device or model from postmarket surveillance. You should demonstrate why the surveillance question does not apply to your device or does not need to be answered for the device for which you are requesting exemption. Alternatively, you may provide information that answers the surveillance question for your device, with supporting documentation, to the address in § 822.8.

You must keep copies of:

(a) All correspondence with your investigators or FDA, including required reports;

(b) Signed agreements from each of your investigators, if your surveillance plan uses investigators, stating the commitment to conduct the surveillance in accordance with the approved plan, any applicable FDA regulations, and any conditions of approval for your plan, such as reporting requirements;

(c) Your approved postmarket surveillance plan, with documentation of the date and reason for any deviation from the plan;

(d) All data collected and analyses conducted in support of your postmarket surveillance plan; and

(e) Any other records that we require to be maintained by regulation or by order, such as copies of signed consent documents, evidence of Institutional Review Board review and approval, etc.

Your investigator must keep copies of:

(a) All correspondence between investigators, FDA, the manufacturer, and the designated person, including required reports.

(b) The approved postmarket surveillance plan, with documentation of the date and reason for any deviation from the plan.

(c) All data collected and analyses conducted at that site for postmarket surveillance.

(d) Any other records that we require to be maintained by regulation or by order.

You, the designated person, and your investigators must keep all records for a period of 2 years after we have accepted your final report, unless we specify otherwise.

If the sponsor of the plan or an investigator in the plan changes, you must ensure that all records related to the postmarket surveillance have been transferred to the new sponsor or investigator and notify us within 10 working days of the effective date of the change. You must provide the name, address, and telephone number of the new sponsor or investigator, certify that all records have been transferred, and provide the date of transfer.

We can review your postmarket surveillance programs during regularly scheduled inspections, inspections initiated to investigate recalls or other similar actions, and inspections initiated specifically to review your postmarket surveillance plan. We may also inspect any other person or site involved in your postmarket surveillance, such as investigators or contractors. Any person authorized to grant access to a facility must permit authorized FDA employees to enter and inspect any facility where the device is held or where records regarding postmarket surveillance are held.

We may, at a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner, inspect and copy any records pertaining to the conduct of postmarket surveillance that are required to be kept by this regulation. You must be able to produce records and information required by this regulation that are in the possession of others under contract with you to conduct the postmarket surveillance. Those who have signed agreements or are under contract with you must also produce the records and information upon our request. This information must be produced within 72 hours of the initiation of the inspection. We generally will redact information pertaining to individual subjects prior to copying those records, unless there are extenuating circumstances.

We can inspect and copy records identifying subjects under the same circumstances that we can inspect any records relating to postmarket surveillance. We are likely to be interested in such records if we have reason to believe that required reports have not been submitted, or are incomplete, inaccurate, false, or misleading.

You must submit interim and final reports as specified in your approved postmarket surveillance plan. In addition, we may ask you to submit additional information when we believe that the information is necessary for the protection of the public health and implementation of the act. We will also state the reason or purpose for the request and how we will use the information.

As used in this part:

Automatic identification and data capture (AIDC) means any technology that conveys the unique device identifier or the device identifier of a device in a form that can be entered into an electronic patient record or other computer system via an automated process.

Center Director means the Director of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health or the Director of the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, depending on which Center has been assigned lead responsibility for the device.

Device package means a package that contains a fixed quantity of a particular version or model of a device.

Expiration date means the date by which the label of a device states the device must or should be used.

FDA, we, or us means the Food and Drug Administration.

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act means 21 U.S.C. 321 et seq., as amended.

Finished device means any device or accessory to any device that is suitable for use or capable of functioning.

Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) means the database that serves as a repository of information to facilitate the identification of medical devices through their distribution and use.

Human cell, tissue, or cellular or tissue-based product (HCT/P) regulated as a device means an HCT/P as defined in § 1271.3(d) of this chapter that does not meet the criteria in § 1271.10(a) and that is also regulated as a device.

Issuing agency means an organization accredited by FDA to operate a system for the issuance of unique device identifiers.

Label has the meaning set forth in section 201(k) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

Labeler means:

(1) Any person who causes a label to be applied to a device with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any subsequent replacement or modification of the label; and

(2) Any person who causes the label of a device to be replaced or modified with the intent that the device will be commercially distributed without any subsequent replacement or modification of the label, except that the addition of the name of, and contact information for, a person who distributes the device, without making any other changes to the label, is not a modification for the purposes of determining whether a person is a labeler.

Lot or batch means one finished device or more that consist of a single type, model, class, size, composition, or software version that are manufactured under essentially the same conditions and that are intended to have uniform characteristics and quality within specified limits.

Shipping container means a container used during the shipment or transportation of devices, and whose contents may vary from one shipment to another.

Small business means a medical device manufacturer with 500 or fewer employees, or a medical device relabeler or repackager with 100 or fewer employees.

Specification means any requirement with which a device must conform.

Unique device identifier (UDI) means an identifier that adequately identifies a device through its distribution and use by meeting the requirements of § 830.20. A UDI is composed of:

(1) A device identifier - a mandatory, fixed portion of a UDI that identifies the specific version or model of a device and the labeler of that device; and

(2) A production identifier - a conditional, variable portion of a UDI that identifies one or more of the following when included on the label of the device:

(i) The lot or batch within which a device was manufactured;

(ii) The serial number of a specific device;

(iii) The expiration date of a specific device;

(iv) The date a specific device was manufactured.

(v) For an HCT/P regulated as a device, the distinct identification code required by § 1271.290(c) of this chapter.

Universal product code (UPC) means the product identifier used to identify an item sold at retail in the United States.

Version or model means all devices that have specifications, performance, size, and composition, within limits set by the labeler.

(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the Food and Drug Administration must publish notice of change in the Federal Register and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 301-827-6860, and is available from the source listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Copies are also available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), mailing address: ANSI, Attn: Customer Service Department, 25 West 43rd St., 4th floor, New York, NY 10036, phone: 212-642-4980, and may be ordered online at http://webstore.ansi.org/. The material is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

(b) International Organization for Standardization (ISO), mailing address: ISO, Attn: ISO Central Secretariat, 1, ch. de la Voie-Creuse, Case postale 56, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland, phone (dialing from the United States): 011-41-22-749-0111, and may be ordered online at http://www.standardsinfo.net.

(1) ISO/IEC 646:1991(E), Information technology - ISO 7-bit coded character set for information interchange (third edition; December 15, 1991), into §§ 830.20(c) and 830.100(b);

(2) ISO/IEC 15459-2:2006(E), Information technology - Unique identifiers - Part 2: Registration procedures (second edition; March 1, 2006), into §§ 830.20(b) and 830.100(b);

(3) ISO/IEC 15459-4:2008(E), Information technology - Unique identifiers - Part 4: Individual items (second edition; July 15, 2008), into §§ 830.20(b) and 830.100(b);

(4) ISO/IEC 15459-6:2007(E), Information technology - Unique identifiers - Part 6: Unique identifier for product groupings (first edition; June 15, 2007), into §§ 830.20(b) and 830.100(b).

A unique device identifier (UDI) must:

(a) Be issued under a system operated by FDA or an FDA-accredited issuing agency;

(b) Conform to each of the following international standards:

(1) ISO/IEC 15459-2, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10;

(2) ISO/IEC 15459-4, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10; and

(3) ISO/IEC 15459-6, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.

(c) Use only characters and numbers from the invariant character set of ISO/IEC 646, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.

(a) Only one device identifier from any particular system for the issuance of unique device identifiers (UDIs) may be used to identify a particular version or model of a device. A particular version or model may be identified by UDIs from two or more systems for the issuance of UDIs.

(b) A device identifier shall be used to identify only one version or model.

(c) In the event that a version or model of a device is discontinued, its device identifier may not be reassigned to another device. If a discontinued version or model is re-introduced and no changes have been made that would require the use of a new device identifier, the device identifier that was previously in use may be used to identify the device.

(d) In the event that an issuing agency relinquishes or does not renew its accreditation, you may continue to use a previously issued UDI until such time as § 830.50 requires you to assign a new device identifier.

(a) Whenever you make a change to a device that is required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label, and the change results in a new version or model, you must assign a new device identifier to the new version or model.

(b) Whenever you create a new device package, you must assign a new device identifier to the new device package.

If you relabel a device that is required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI), you must:

(a) Assign a new device identifier to the device, and

(b) Keep a record showing the relationship of the prior device identifier to your new device identifier.

(a) Eligibility. A private organization may apply for accreditation as an issuing agency.

(b) Accreditation criteria. FDA may accredit an organization as an issuing agency, if the system it will operate:

(1) Will employ unique device identifiers (UDIs) that meet the requirements of this part to adequately identify a device through its distribution and use;

(2) Conforms to each of the following international standards:

(i) ISO/IEC 15459-2, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10;

(ii) ISO/IEC 15459-4, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10;

(iii) ISO/IEC 15459-6, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.

(3) Uses only characters and numbers from the invariant character set of ISO/IEC 646, which is incorporated by reference at § 830.10.

(4) Will be available to all users according to a single set of consistent, fair, and reasonable terms and conditions.

(5) Will protect against conflicts of interest between the issuing agency (and its officers, employees, and other agents) and labelers (and their officers, employees, and other agents) seeking to use UDIs that may impede the applicant's ability to independently operate a fair and neutral identifier system.

(a) Application for initial accreditation. (1) An applicant seeking initial FDA accreditation as an issuing agency shall notify FDA of its desire to be accredited by sending a notification by email to: GUDIDSupport@fda.hhs.gov, or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 3303, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.

(2) FDA will provide the applicant with additional information to aid in submission of an application for approval as an issuing agency, together with an email address for submission of an application.

(3) The applicant shall furnish to FDA, via email to the email address provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an application containing the following information, materials, and supporting documentation:

(i) Name, address, and phone number of the applicant;

(ii) Detailed descriptions of any standards or criteria the applicant will apply to participating labelers;

(iii) A detailed description of the guidelines that govern assignment of a unique device identifier (UDI) to a device;

(iv) A detailed description of the review and decisionmaking process the applicant will apply when determining whether a particular labeler may use the applicant's UDI system, including:

(A) Copies of the application forms, guidelines, instructions, and other materials the applicant will send to medical device labelers who wish to use the applicant's unique device identification system;

(B) Policies and procedures for notifying a labeler of deficiencies in its use of UDIs;

(C) Procedures for monitoring a labeler's correction of deficiencies in its use of UDIs;

(D) Policies and procedures for suspending or revoking a labeler's use of the applicant's UDI system, including any appeals process.

(v) Description of the applicant's electronic data management system with respect to its review and decision processes and the applicant's ability to provide electronic data in a format compatible with FDA data systems;

(vi) Fee schedules, if any, together with an explanation of any fee waivers or reductions that are available;

(vii) Detailed information regarding any financial or other relationship between the applicant and any labeler(s) or governmental entity(ies); and

(viii) Other information required by FDA to clarify the application for accreditation.

(b) Application for renewal of accreditation. An accredited issuing agency that intends to continue to serve as an issuing agency beyond its current term shall apply to FDA for renewal or notify FDA of its plans not to apply for renewal in accordance with the following procedures and schedule:

(1) At least 9 months before the date of expiration of its accreditation, an issuing agency shall inform FDA, at the address given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, of its intent to seek renewal.

(2) FDA will notify the issuing agency of the relevant information, materials, and supporting documentation that we will require the issuing agency to submit as part of the renewal procedure. We will tailor these requirements to reflect our experience with the issuing agency during the current and any prior period of accreditation. We will limit our request to the types of the information required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, and we will require less information if experience shows that we need only a subset of that information.

(3) At least 6 months before the date of expiration of its accreditation, an issuing agency shall furnish to FDA, at the email address we provide, a copy of a renewal application containing the information, materials, and supporting documentation requested by FDA in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(4) Any issuing agency that does not plan to renew its accreditation shall so notify FDA at the address given in paragraph (a)(1) of this section at least 9 months before the expiration of the issuing agency's term of accreditation and shall include a description of its plans for allowing continued use of UDIs issued prior to the expiration of the current term of accreditation.

(c) FDA action on an application for initial or renewal accreditation. (1) FDA will conduct a review and evaluation to determine whether the applicant meets the requirements of this subpart and whether the UDI system proposed by the applicant will meet the requirements of this subpart.

(2) Within 60 days of receipt of an application for accreditation, FDA will notify the applicant of any deficiencies in its application and will request correction of those deficiencies within 60 days. The applicant may request an extension if it needs additional time to correct deficiencies in its application. If the deficiencies are not resolved to FDA's satisfaction within the specified time period, the application for accreditation as an issuing agency may be denied.

(3) FDA shall notify the applicant whether the application for accreditation has been granted or denied. That notification shall list any conditions of approval or state the reasons for denial.

(4) If FDA denies an application, we will advise the applicant of the circumstances under which a denied application may be resubmitted.

(5) If FDA does not reach a final decision on a renewal application before the expiration of an issuing agency's current accreditation, the approval will be deemed extended until FDA reaches a final decision on the application.

(d) Relinquishment of accreditation. If an issuing agency decides to relinquish its accreditation before expiration of the current term of accreditation, it shall submit a letter of such intent to FDA, at the address provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, at least 9 months before relinquishing its accreditation.

(e) Notice of termination of accreditation. An issuing agency that does not apply for renewal of its accreditation, is denied renewal of accreditation by FDA, or relinquishes its accreditation and duties before expiration of the current term of accreditation, shall notify all labelers that are using the issuing agency's UDI system, in a manner and time period approved by FDA, of the date that the issuing agency will cease to serve as an FDA-accredited issuing agency.

(f) Term of accreditation. The initial term of accreditation for an issuing agency shall be for a period of 3 years. An issuing agency's term of accreditation may be periodically renewed for a period of 7 years.

To maintain its accreditation, an issuing agency must:

(a) Operate a system for assignment of unique device identifiers (UDIs) that meets the requirements of § 830.20;

(b) Make available information concerning its system for the assignment of UDIs;

(c) Maintain a list of labelers that use its system for the assignment of UDIs and provide FDA a copy of such list in electronic form by December 31 of each year;

(d) Upon request, provide FDA with information concerning a labeler that is employing the issuing agency's system for assignment of UDIs; and

(e) Remain in compliance with the eligibility and accreditation criteria set forth in § 830.100.

FDA may suspend or revoke the accreditation of an issuing agency if FDA finds, after providing the issuing agency with notice and opportunity for an informal hearing in accordance with part 16 of this chapter, that the issuing agency or any officer, employee, or other agent of the issuing agency:

(a) Has been guilty of misrepresentation or failure to disclose required information in obtaining accreditation;

(b) Has failed to fulfill the responsibilities outlined in § 830.120;

(c) Has failed to protect against conflicts of interest that may impede the issuing agency's ability to independently operate a fair and neutral identifier system;

(d) In the operation of the issuing agency, has engaged in any anticompetitive activity to restrain trade; or

(e) Has violated or aided and abetted in the violation of any regulation issued under section 510(e) or section 519(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(a) During any period where there is no accredited issuing agency, FDA will act as an issuing agency.

(b) If FDA determines that a significant number of small businesses would be substantially and adversely affected by the fees required by all accredited issuing agencies, FDA will act as an issuing agency.

(c) FDA may, in its discretion, act as an issuing agency if we determine it is necessary for us to do so to ensure the continuity or the effectiveness of the system for the identification of medical devices.

(d) FDA may, in its discretion, act as an issuing agency if we determine it is appropriate for us to do so in order to facilitate or implement an alternative granted under § 801.55 of this chapter.

When FDA acts as an issuing agency, any labeler will be permitted to use FDA's unique device identification system, regardless of whether the labeler is considered a small business.

(a) FDA may end our services as an issuing agency if we determine that the conditions that prompted us to act no longer exist and that ending our services would not be likely to lead to a return of the conditions that prompted us to act.

(b) If FDA has ended our services as an issuing agency, a labeler may continue to use a device identifier assigned under FDA's unique device identification system until such time as § 830.50 requires the use of a new device identifier.

(a) In general. The labeler of a device must provide the information required by this subpart for each version or model required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI).

(b) Voluntary submission of information. If a labeler voluntarily includes a UDI on the label of a device under § 801.40, the labeler may also voluntarily submit information concerning that device under this part.

(c) Exclusions. FDA may reject or remove any device identification data where:

(1) The device identifier submitted does not conform to § 830.20;

(2) The information concerns a device that is neither manufactured in the United States nor in interstate commerce in the United States,

(3) The information concerns a product that FDA determines is not a device or a combination product that includes a device constituent part,

(4) The information concerns a device or a combination product that requires, but does not have, FDA premarket approval, licensure, or clearance;

(5) A device that FDA has banned under section 516 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or

(6) FDA has suspended the accreditation of the issuing agency that operates the system used by the labeler.

The contact for device identification designated under § 830.320(a) shall provide FDA with the following information concerning each version or model of a device required to bear a unique device identifier (UDI) on its label:

(a) Concerning the labeler:

(1) The name of the labeler;

(2) A telephone number or email address that will allow FDA to communicate with the contact for device identification designated under § 830.320(a); and

(3) The name of each issuing agency whose system is used by the labeler to assign UDIs used by the labeler.

(b) Concerning each version or model of a device with a UDI on its label:

(1) The device identifier portion of the UDI assigned to the version or model;

(2) When reporting a substitution of a new device identifier that will be used in lieu of a previously reported identifier, the device identifier that was previously assigned to the version or model;

(3) If § 801.45 of this chapter requires the device to bear a UDI as a permanent marking on the device itself, either:

(i) A statement that the device identifier that appears as a permanent marking on the device is identical to that reported under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or

(ii) The device identifier portion of the UDI that appears as a permanent marking on the device;

(4) The proprietary, trade, or brand name of the device as it appears on the label of the device;

(5) Any version or model number or similar reference that appears on the label of the device;

(6) If the device is labeled as sterile, a statement to that effect;

(7) If the device is labeled as containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, or is labeled as having packaging containing natural rubber latex that contacts humans, as described by §§ 801.437(b)(1), 801.437(b)(3), and 801.437(f) of this chapter, a statement to that effect;

(8) Whether a patient may be safely exposed to magnetic resonance imaging, nuclear magnetic resonance imaging, or magnetic resonance tomography while using the device, or while the device is implanted in patient.

(9) If the device is available in more than one size, the size of the particular version or model, together with the unit of measure, as it appears on the label of the device;

(10) The type of production identifiers that appear on the label of the device;

(11) The FDA premarket submission number of a cleared or approved device, or a statement that FDA has by regulation exempted the device from premarket notification;

(12) The FDA listing number assigned to the device;

(13) The Global Medical Device Nomenclature (GMDN) term or code for the device;

(14) The total number of individual devices contained in the device package.

(a) Designation of contact for device identification. Each labeler must designate an individual to serve as the point of contact with FDA on matters relating to the identification of medical devices marketed by the labeler. The contact for device information is responsible for ensuring FDA is provided with all information required by this part. The contact for device information may authorize an issuing agency or any other person to provide information to FDA on behalf of the labeler.

(b) Information shall be submitted via electronic means. All information required by this subpart shall be submitted electronically to FDA's Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) in a format that we can process, review, and archive, unless the labeler has obtained a waiver from electronic submission of unique device identifier (UDI) data.

(c) Waiver from electronic submission. (1) A labeler may request a waiver from electronic submission of UDI data by submitting a letter addressed to the appropriate Center Director explaining why electronic submission is not technologically feasible; send the request by email to: udi@fda.hhs.gov, or by correspondence to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, Bldg. 66, Rm. 3303, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.

(2) If the establishment where the labeler is located has obtained a waiver from electronic submission of registration and listing information under section 510(p) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the labeler is deemed to have a waiver from electronic submission of UDI data.

(3) A labeler that has a waiver from electronic submission of UDI data must send a letter containing all of the information required by § 830.310, as well as any ancillary information permitted to be submitted under § 830.340 that the labeler wishes to submit, within the time permitted by § 830.330, addressed to: UDI Regulatory Policy Support, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, Bldg. 66, Rm. 3303, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.

(a) The labeler shall submit to FDA the information required by § 830.310 no later than the date the label of the device must bear a unique device identifier under § 801.20 of this chapter.

(b) The labeler of a device shall submit to FDA an update to the information required by § 830.310 whenever the information changes. The updated information must be submitted no later than the date a device is first labeled with the changed information. If the information does not appear on the label of a device, the updated information must be submitted within 10 business days of the change.

(a) You may not submit any information to the Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) other than that specified by § 830.310, except where FDA acts to permit the submission of specified additional types of information, termed ancillary information.

(b) FDA will provide information through the FDA Web site at http://www.fda.gov/udi/ concerning the types of ancillary information that may be submitted to the GUDID.

(c) FDA may periodically change the types of ancillary information that may be submitted to the GUDID. We will announce any change on the FDA Web site at http://www.fda.gov/udi/ at least 60 days before making the change.

(a) If FDA becomes aware that any information submitted to the Global Unique Device Identification Database (GUDID) appears to be incorrect or potentially misleading, we may notify the labeler of the specific information that appears to be incorrect, and request that the labeler provide corrected information or explain why the information is correct. The labeler must provide corrected information or provide a satisfactory explanation of why the information is correct within 30 days of receipt of FDA's notification.

(b) If the labeler does not respond to FDA's notification within 30 days of receipt, or if FDA determines, at any time, that any information in the GUDID is incorrect or could be misleading, we may delete or correct the information. Any action taken by FDA under this paragraph does not relieve the labeler of its responsibility under paragraph (a) of this section to provide corrected information or an explanation of why the information previously submitted is correct.

(a) Each labeler shall retain, and submit to FDA upon specific request, records showing all unique device identifiers (UDIs) used to identify devices that must bear a UDI on their label, and the particular version or model associated with each device identifier. These records must be retained for 3 years from the date the labeler ceases to market the version or model.

(b) Compliance with this section does not relieve the labeler of the need to comply with recordkeeping requirements of any other FDA regulation.

(a) This part implements sections 513, 514(b), 515(b), and 520(l) of the act with respect to the classification and reclassification of devices intended for human use.

(b) This part prescribes the criteria and procedures to be used by classification panels in making their recommendations and by the Commissioner in making the Commissioner's determinations regarding the class of regulatory control (class I, class II, or class III) appropriate for particular devices. Supplementing the general Food and Drug Administration procedures governing advisory committees (part 14 of this chapter), this part also provides procedures for manufacturers, importers, and other interested persons to participate in proceedings to classify and reclassify devices. This part also describes the kind of data required for determination of the safety and effectiveness of a device, and the circumstances under which information submitted to classification panels or to the Commissioner in connection with classification and reclassification proceedings will be available to the public.

For the purposes of this part:

(a) Act means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(b) Commissioner means the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, Food and Drug Administration, United States Department of Health and Human Services, or the Commissioner's designee.

(c) Class means one of the three categories of regulatory control for medical devices, defined below:

(1) Class I means the class of devices that are subject to only the general controls authorized by or under sections 501 (adulteration), 502 (misbranding), 510 (registration), 516 (banned devices), 518 (notification and other remedies), 519 (records and reports), and 520 (general provisions) of the act. A device is in class I if (i) general controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device, or (ii) there is insufficient information from which to determine that general controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device or to establish special controls to provide such assurance, but the device is not life-supporting or life-sustaining or for a use which is of substanial importance in preventing impairment of human health, and which does not present a potential unreasonable risk of illness of injury.

(2) Class II means the class of devices that is or eventually will be subject to special controls. A device is in class II if general controls alone are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of its safety and effectiveness and there is sufficient information to establish special controls, including the promulgation of performance standards, postmarket surveillance, patient registries, development and dissemination of guidance documents (including guidance on the submission of clinical data in premarket notification submissions in accordance with section 510(k) of the act), recommendations, and other appropriate actions as the Commissioner deems necessary to provide such assurance. For a device that is purported or represented to be for use in supporting or sustaining human life, the Commissioner shall examine and identify the special controls, if any, that are necessary to provide adequate assurance of safety and effectiveness and describe how such controls provide such assurance.

(3) Class III means the class of devices for which premarket approval is or will be required in accordance with section 515 of the act. A device is in class III if insufficient information exists to determine that general controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of its safety and effectiveness or that application of special controls described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section would provide such assurance and if, in addition, the device is life-supporting or life-sustaining, or for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health, or if the device presents a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.

(d) Implant means a device that is placed into a surgically or naturally formed cavity of the human body. A device is regarded as an implant for the purpose of this part only if it is intended to remain implanted continuously for a period of 30 days or more, unless the Commissioner determines otherwise in order to protect human health.

(e) Life-supporting or life-sustaining device means a device that is essential to, or that yields information that is essential to, the restoration or continuation of a bodily function important to the continuation of human life.

(f)-(g) [Reserved]

(h) Classification panel means one of the several advisory committees established by the Commissioner under section 513 of the act and part 14 of this chapter for the purpose of making recommendations to the Commissioner on the classification and reclassification of devices and for other purposes prescribed by the act or by the Commissioner.

(i) Generic type of device means a grouping of devices that do not differ significantly in purpose, design, materials, energy source, function, or any other feature related to safety and effectiveness, and for which similar regulatory controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.

(j) Petition means a submission seeking reclassification of a device in accordance with § 860.123.

(a) This section governs the availability for public disclosure and the use by the Commissioner of data and information submitted to classification panels or to the Commissioner in connection with the classification or reclassification of devices under this part.

(b) In general, data and information submitted to classification panels in connection with the classification of devices under § 860.84 will be available immediately for public disclosure upon request. However, except as provided by the special rules in paragraph (c) of this section, this provision does not apply to data and information exempt from public disclosure in accordance with part 20 of this chapter: Such data and information will be available only in accordance with part 20.

(c)(1) Safety and effectiveness data submitted to classification panels or to the Commissioner in connection with the classification of a device under § 860.84, which have not been disclosed previously to the public, as described in § 20.81 of this chapter, shall be regarded as confidential if the device is classified in to class III. Because the classification of a device under § 860.84 may be ascertained only upon publication of a final regulation, all safety and effectiveness data that have not been disclosed previously are not available for public disclosure unless and until the device is classified into class I or II, in which case the procedure in paragraph (c)(2) of this section applies.

(2) Thirty days after publication of a final regulation under § 860.84 classifying a device into class I or class II, safety and effectiveness data submitted for that device that had been regarded as confidential under paragraph (c)(1) of this section will be available for public disclosure and placed on public display in the office of the Division of Dockets Management, Food and Drug Administration unless, within that 30-day period, the person who submitted the data demonstrates that the data still fall within the exemption for trade secrets and confidential commercial information described in § 20.61 of this chapter. Safety and effectiveness data submitted for a device that is classified into class III by regulation in accordance with § 860.84 will remain confidential and unavailable for public disclosure so long as such data have not been disclosed to the public as described in § 20.81 of this chapter.

(3) Because device classification affects generic types of devices, in making determinations under § 860.84 concerning the initial classification of a device, the classification panels and the Commissioner may consider safety and effectiveness data developed for another device in the same generic type, regardless of whether such data are regarded currently as confidential under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(d)(1) The fact of its existence and the contents of a petition for reclassification filed in accordance with § 860.130 or § 860.132 are available for public disclosure at the time the petition is received by the Food and Drug Administration.

(2) The fact of the existence of a petition for reclassification filed in accordance with § 860.134 or § 860.136 is available for public disclosure at the time the petition is received by the Food and Drug Administration. The contents of such a petition are not available for public disclosure for the period of time following its receipt (not longer than 30 days) during which the petition is reviewed for any deficiencies preventing the Commissioner from making a decision on it. Once it is determined that the petition contains no deficiencies preventing the Commissioner from making a decision on it, the petition will be filed with the Division of Dockets Management and its entire contents will be available for public disclosure and subject to consideration by classification panels and by the Commissioner in making a decision on the petition. If, during this 30-day period of time, the petition is found to contain deficiencies that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it, the petitioner will be so notified and afforded an opportunity to correct the deficiencies.

(e) The Commissioner may not disclose, or use as the basis for reclassification of a device from class III to class II, any information reported to or otherwise obtained by the Commissioner under section 513, 514, 515, 516, 518, 519, 520(f), 520(g), or 704 of the act that falls within the exemption described in § 20.61 of this chapter for trade secrets and confidential commercial information. The exemption described in § 20.61 does not apply to data or information contained in a petition for reclassification submitted in accordance with § 860.130 or § 860.132, or in a petition submitted in accordance with § 860.134 or § 860.136 that has been determined to contain no deficiencies that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it. Accordingly, all data and information contained in such petitions may be disclosed by the Commissioner and used as the basis for reclassification of a device from class III to class II.

(f) For purposes of this section, safety and effectiveness data include data and results derived from all studies and tests of a device on animals and humans and from all studies and tests of the device itself intended to establish or determine its safety and effectiveness.

(a) The classification panels, in reviewing evidence concerning the safety and effectiveness of a device and in preparing advice to the Commissioner, and the Commissioner, in making determinations concerning the safety and effectiveness of a device, will apply the rules in this section.

(b) In determining the safety and effectiveness of a device for purposes of classification, establishment of special controls for class II devices, and premarket approval of class III devices, the Commissioner and the classification panels will consider the following, among other relevant factors:

(1) The persons for whose use the device is represented or intended;

(2) The conditions of use for the device, including conditions of use prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling or advertising of the device, and other intended conditions of use;

(3) The probable benefit to health from the use of the device weighed against any probable injury or illness from such use; and

(4) The reliability of the device.

(c)(1) Although the manufacturer may submit any form of evidence to the Food and Drug Administration in an attempt to substantiate the safety and effectiveness of a device, the agency relies upon only valid scientific evidence to determine whether there is reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective. After considering the nature of the device and the rules in this section, the Commissioner will determine whether the evidence submitted or otherwise available to the Commissioner is valid scientific evidence for the purpose of determining the safety or effectiveness of a particular device and whether the available evidence, when taken as a whole, is adequate to support a determination that there is reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective for its conditions of use.

(2) Valid scientific evidence is evidence from well-controlled investigations, partially controlled studies, studies and objective trials without matched controls, well-documented case histories conducted by qualified experts, and reports of significant human experience with a marketed device, from which it can fairly and responsibly be concluded by qualified experts that there is reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of a device under its conditions of use. The evidence required may vary according to the characteristics of the device, its conditions of use, the existence and adequacy of warnings and other restrictions, and the extent of experience with its use. Isolated case reports, random experience, reports lacking sufficient details to permit scientific evaluation, and unsubstantiated opinions are not regarded as valid scientific evidence to show safety or effectiveness. Such information may be considered, however, in identifying a device with questionable safety or effectiveness.

(d)(1) There is reasonable assurance that a device is safe when it can be determined, based upon valid scientific evidence, that the probable benefits to health from use of the device for its intended uses and conditions of use, when accompanied by adequate directions and warnings against unsafe use, outweigh any probable risks. The valid scientific evidence used to determine the safety of a device shall adequately demonstrate the absence of unreasonable risk of illness or injury associated with the use of the device for its intended uses and conditions of use.

(2) Among the types of evidence that may be required, when appropriate, to determine that there is reasonable assurance that a device is safe are investigations using laboratory animals, investigations involving human subjects, nonclinical investigations, and analytical studies for in vitro diagnostic devices.

(e)(1) There is reasonable assurance that a device is effective when it can be determined, based upon valid scientific evidence, that in a significant portion of the target population, the use of the device for its intended uses and conditions of use, when accompanied by adequate directions for use and warnings against unsafe use, will provide clinically significant results.

(2) The valid scientific evidence used to determine the effectiveness of a device shall consist principally of well-controlled investigations, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, unless the Commissioner authorizes reliance upon other valid scientific evidence which the Commissioner has determined is sufficient evidence from which to determine the effectiveness of a device, even in the absence of well-controlled investigations. The Commissioner may make such a determination where the requirement of well-controlled investigations in paragraph (f) of this section is not reasonably applicable to the device.

(f) The following principles have been developed over a period of years and are recognized by the scientific community as the essentials of a well-controlled clinical investigation. They provide the basis for the Commissioner's determination whether there is reasonable assurance that a device is effective based upon well-controlled investigations and are also useful in assessing the weight to be given to other valid scientific evidence permitted under this section.

(1) The plan or protocol for the study and the report of the results of a well-controlled investigation shall include the following:

(i) A clear statement of the objectives of the study;

(ii) A method of selection of the subjects that:

(a) Provides adequate assurance that the subjects are suitable for the purposes of the study, provides diagnostic criteria of the condition to be treated or diagnosed, provides confirmatory laboratory tests where appropriate and, in the case of a device to prevent a disease or condition, provides evidence of susceptibility and exposure to the condition against which prophylaxis is desired;

(b) Assigns the subjects to test groups, if used, in such a way as to minimize any possible bias;

(c) Assures comparability between test groups and any control groups of pertinent variables such as sex, severity or duration of the disease, and use of therapy other than the test device;

(iii) An explanation of the methods of observation and recording of results utilized, including the variables measured, quantitation, assessment of any subject's response, and steps taken to minimize any possible bias of subjects and observers;

(iv) A comparison of the results of treatment or diagnosis with a control in such a fashion as to permit quantitative evaluation. The precise nature of the control must be specified and an explanation provided of the methods employed to minimize any possible bias of the observers and analysts of the data. Level and methods of “blinding,” if appropriate and used, are to be documented. Generally, four types of comparisons are recognized:

(a) No treatments. Where objective measurements of effectiveness are available and placebo effect is negligible, comparison of the objective results in comparable groups of treated and untreated patients;

(b) Placebo control. Where there may be a placebo effect with the use of a device, comparison of the results of use of the device with an ineffective device used under conditions designed to resemble the conditions of use under investigation as far as possible;

(c) Active treatment control. Where an effective regimen of therapy may be used for comparison, e.g., the condition being treated is such that the use of a placebo or the withholding of treatment would be inappropriate or contrary to the interest of the patient;

(d) Historical control. In certain circumstances, such as those involving diseases with high and predictable mortality or signs and symptoms of predictable duration or severity, or in the case of prophylaxis where morbidity is predictable, the results of use of the device may be compared quantitatively with prior experience historically derived from the adequately documented natural history of the disease or condition in comparable patients or populations who received no treatment or who followed an established effective regimen (therapeutic, diagnostic, prophylactic).

(v) A summary of the methods of analysis and an evaluation of the data derived from the study, including any appropriate statistical methods utilized.

(2) To insure the reliability of the results of an investigation, a well-controlled investigation shall involve the use of a test device that is standardized in its composition or design and performance.

(g)(1) It is the responsibility of each manufacturer and importer of a device to assure that adequate, valid scientific evidence exists, and to furnish such evidence to the Food and Drug Administration to provide reasonable assurance that the device is safe and effective for its intended uses and conditions of use. The failure of a manufacturer or importer of a device to present to the Food and Drug Administration adequate, valid scientific evidence showing that there is reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device, if regulated by general controls alone, or by general controls and special controls, may support a determination that the device be classified into class III.

(2) The Commissioner may require that a manufacturer, importer, or distributor make reports or provide other information bearing on the classification of a device and indicating whether there is reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device or whether it is adulterated or misbranded under the act.

(3) A requirement for a report or other information under this paragraph will comply with section 519 of the act. Accordingly, the requirement will state the reason or purpose for such request; will describe the required report or information as clearly as possible; will not be imposed on a manufacturer, importer, or distributor of a classified device that has been exempted from such a requirement in accordance with § 860.95; will prescribe the time for compliance with the requirement; and will prescribe the form and manner in which the report or information is to be provided.

(4) Required information that has been submitted previously to the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, or the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, as applicable, need not be resubmitted, but may be incorporated by reference.

(a) A classification panel will recommend classification into class III of any implant or life-supporting or life-sustaining device unless the panel determines that such classification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. If the panel recommends classification or reclassification of such a device into a class other than class III, it shall set forth in its recommendation the reasons for so doing and an identification of the risks to health, if any, presented by the device. In the case of such a device being recommended for classification or reclassification into class II, the panel shall describe the special controls that, in addition to general controls, the panel believes are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device and how such controls provide such assurance.

(b) The Commissioner will classify an implant or life-supporting or life-sustaining device into class III unless the Commissioner determines that such classification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. If the Commissioner proposes to classify or reclassify such a device into a class other than class III, the regulation or order effecting such classification or reclassification will be accompanied by a full statement of the reasons for so doing. A statement of the reasons for not classifying or retaining the device in class III may be in the form of concurrence with the reasons for the recommendation of the classification panel, together with supporting documentation and data satisfying the requirements of § 860.7 and an identification of the risks to health, if any, presented by the device. In the case of such a device being classified or reclassified into class II, the Commissioner shall describe the special controls that, in addition to general controls, the panel believes are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device and how such controls provide such assurance.

(a) A panel recommendation to the Commissioner that a device be classified or reclassified into class I will include a recommendation as to whether the device should be exempted from some or all of the requirements of one or more of the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act: Section 510 (registration, product listing, and premarket notification), section 519 (records and reports) and section 520(f) (good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation), and, in the case of a recommendation for classification into class II, whether the device should be exempted from the premarket notification requirement under section 510.

(b) A regulation or an order classifying or reclassifying a device into class I will specify which requirements, if any, of sections 510, 519, and 520(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act the device is to be exempted from or, in the case of a regulation or an order classifying or reclassifying a device into class II, whether the device is to be exempted from the premarket notification requirement under section 510, together with the reasons for such exemption.

(c) The Commissioner will grant exemptions under this section only if the Commissioner determines that the requirements from which the device is exempted are not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.

(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures for the original classification of a generic type of device that was in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976. Such a device will be classified by regulation into either class I (general controls), class II (special controls) or class III (premarket approval), depending upon the level of regulatory control required to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device (§ 860.3(c)). This subpart does not apply to a device that is classified into class III by statute under section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the Food and Drug Administration has determined that the device is not “substantially equivalent” to any device subject to this subpart or under section 520(l)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act because the device was regarded previously as a new drug. In classifying a preamendments device to which this section applies, the Food and Drug Administration will follow the procedures described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.

(b) The Commissioner refers the device to the appropriate classification panel organized and operated in accordance with section 513 (b) and (c) of the act and part 14 of this chapter.

(c) In order to make recommendations to the Commissioner on the class of regulatory control (class I, class II, or class III) appropriate for the device, the panel reviews the device for safety and effectiveness. In so doing, the panel:

(1) Considers the factors set forth in § 860.7 relating to the determination of safety and effectiveness;

(2) Determines the safety and effectiveness of the device on the basis of the types of scientific evidence set forth in § 860.7; and

(3) Provides, to the maximum extent practicable, an opportunity for interested persons to submit data and views on the classification of the device in accordance with part 14 of this chapter.

(d) Based upon its review of evidence of the safety and effectiveness of the device, and applying the definition of each class in § 860.3(c), the panel submits to the Commissioner a recommendation regarding the classification of the device. The recommendation will include:

(1) A summary of the reasons for the recommendation;

(2) A summary of the data upon which the recommendation is based;

(3) An identification of the risks to health (if any) presented by the device;

(4) In the case of a recommendation for classification into class I, a recommendation as to whether the device should be exempted from the requirements of one or more of the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act: Section 510 (registration, product listing, and premarket notification), section 519 (records and reports), and section 520(f) (good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation) and, in the case of a recommendation for classification into class II, whether the device should be exempted from the premarket notification requirement under section 510, in accordance with § 860.15;

(5) In the case of a recommendation for classification into class II or class III, to the extent practicable, a recommendation for the assignment to the device of a priority for the application of a performance standard or a premarket approval requirement, and in the case of classification into class II, a recommendation on the establishment of special controls and whether the device should be exempted from premarket notification in accordance with § 860.15; and

(6) In the case of a recommendation for classification of an implant or a life-supporting or life-sustaining device into class I or class II, a statement of why premarket approval is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device and an identification of the risks to health, if any, presented by the device, in accordance with § 860.10.

(e) A panel recommendation is regarded as preliminary until the Commissioner has reviewed it, discussed it with the panel if appropriate, and published a proposed regulation classifying the device. Preliminary panel recommendations are filed at Dockets Management Staff upon receipt and are available to the public at https://www.regulations.gov.

(f) The Commissioner publishes the panel's recommendation in the Federal Register, together with a proposed regulation classifying the device, and other devices of that generic type, and provides interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the recommendation and proposed regulation.

(g) The Commissioner reviews the comments and issues a final regulation classifying the device and other devices of that generic type. The regulation will:

(1) If classifying the device into class I, prescribe which, if any, of the requirements of sections 510, 519, and 520(f) of the act will not apply to the device and state the reasons for making the requirements inapplicable, in accordance with § 860.95;

(2) If classifying the device into class II, establish the special controls for the device and prescribe whether the premarket notification requirement will apply to the device; and

(3) If classifying an implant, or a life-supporting or life-sustaining device, comply with § 860.10(b).

(a) When the Commissioner is required to consult with a panel concerning a classification under § 860.84, the Commissioner will consult with the panel in one of the following ways:

(1) Consultation by telephone with at least a majority of current voting panel members and, when possible, nonvoting panel members in a telephone or video conference call; or

(2) Discussion at a panel meeting.

(b) The method of consultation chosen by the Commissioner will depend upon the importance and complexity of the subject matter involved and the time available for action. When time and circumstances permit, the Commissioner will consult with a panel through discussion at a panel meeting.

(a) Sections 513(e) and (f), 514(b), 515(b), and 520(l) of the act provide for reclassification of a device and prescribe the procedures to be followed to effect reclassification. The purposes of subpart C are to:

(1) Set forth the requirements as to form and content of petitions for reclassification;

(2) Describe the circumstances in which each of the five statutory reclassification provisions applies; and

(3) Explain the procedure for reclassification prescribed in the five statutory reclassification provisions.

(b) The criteria for determining the proper class for a device are set forth in § 860.3(c). The reclassification of any device within a generic type of device causes the reclassification of all devices within that generic type. Accordingly, a petition for the reclassification of a specific device will be considered a petition for reclassification of all devices within the same generic type.

(c) Any interested person may submit a petition for reclassification under section 513(e), 514(b), or 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. A manufacturer or importer may submit a petition for reclassification under section 513(f) or 520(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The Commissioner may initiate the reclassification of a device under the following sections of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:

(1) Section 513(e) (for a classified device other than a device classified into class III under section 513(f)(1) or 520(l)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act);

(2) Section 513(f)(3) (for a device classified into class III under section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act); or

(3) Section 520(l)(2) (for a device classified into class III under section 520(l)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act).

(a) Unless otherwise provided in writing by the Commissioner, any petition for reclassification of a device, regardless of the section of the act under which it is filed, shall include the following:

(1) A specification of the type of device for which reclassification is requested;

(2) A statement of the action requested by the petitioner, e.g., “It is requested that _ device(s) be reclassified from class III to a class II”;

(3) A statement of the basis for disagreement with the present classification status of the device;

(4) A full statement of the reasons, together with supporting data satisfying the requirements of § 860.7, why the device should not be classified into its present classification and how the proposed classification will provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device;

(5) Representative data and information known by the petitioner that are unfavorable to the petitioner's position;

(6) If the petition is based upon new information under section 513(e), 514(b), or 515(b) of the act, a summary of the new information;

(7) Copies of source documents from which new information used to support the petition has been obtained (attached as appendices to the petition); and

(8) A financial certification or disclosure statement or both as required by part 54 of this chapter.

(b) Each petition submitted pursuant to this section shall be:

(1) For devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Regulations Staff, Document Mail Center-WO66-G609, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; for devices regulated by the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Document Control Center, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. G112, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; for devices regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, addressed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Central Document Control Room, 5901-B Ammendale Rd., Beltsville, MD 20705-1266, as applicable.

(2) Marked clearly with the section of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act under which the petition is being submitted, i.e., “513(e),” “513(f)(3),” “514(b),” “515(b),” or “520(l) Petition”;

(3) Bound in a volume or volumes, where necessary; and

(4) Submitted in an original and two copies.

(a) When the Commissioner chooses to refer a reclassification petition to a classification panel for its recommendation under § 860.134(b), or the Commissioner is required to consult with a panel concerning a reclassification petition submitted under § 860.130(d) or received in a proceeding under § 860.133(b), or the Commissioner chooses to consult with a panel with regard to the reclassification of a device initiated by the Commissioner under § 860.134(c) or § 860.136, the Commissioner will distribute a copy of the petition, or its relevant portions, if applicable, to each panel member and will consult with the panel in one of the following ways:

(1) Consultation by telephone with at least a majority of current voting panel members and, when possible, nonvoting panel members in a telephone or video conference call; or

(2) Discussion at a panel meeting.

(b) The method of consultation chosen by the Commissioner will depend upon the importance and complexity of the subject matter involved and the time available for action. When time and circumstances permit, the Commissioner will consult with a panel through discussion at a panel meeting.

(c) The Commissioner will consult with a classification panel prior to changing the classification of a device in a proceeding under section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 860.130 upon the Commissioner's own initiative or upon petition of an interested person, and in the latter case, the Commissioner will distribute a copy of the petition, or its relevant portions, to each panel member.

(d) When a petition is submitted under § 860.134 for a postamendments, not substantially equivalent, device, if the Commissioner chooses to consult with the panel, the Commissioner will obtain a recommendation that includes the information described in § 860.84(d). In consulting with a panel about a petition submitted under § 860.130(d), § 860.136(a), or received in a proceeding under § 860.133(b), the Commissioner may or may not obtain a formal recommendation.

(a) Section 513(e) of the act applies to reclassification proceedings under the act based upon new information.

(b) A proceeding to reclassify a device under section 513(e) may be initiated:

(1) On the initiative of the Commissioner alone;

(2) On the initiative of the Commissioner in response to a request for change in classification based upon new information, under section 514(b) or 515(b) of the act (see § 860.132); or

(3) In response to the petition of an interested person, based upon new information, filed in accordance with § 860.123.

(c) By administrative order published under this section, the Commissioner may change the classification from:

(1) Class I or class II to class III if the Commissioner determines that the device meets the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c)(3) for a class III device; or

(2) Class III or class I to class II if the Commissioner determines that the device meets the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c)(2) for a class II device; or

(3) Class III or class II to class I if the Commissioner determines that the device meets the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c)(1) for a class I device.

(d)(1) The Commissioner shall consult with a classification panel and may secure a recommendation with respect to reclassification of a device from a classification panel. The panel will consider reclassification in accordance with the consultation procedures of § 860.125. A recommendation submitted to the Commissioner by the panel will be published in the Federal Register when the Commissioner publishes an administrative order under this section.

(2) The Commissioner may change the classification of a device by administrative order published in the Federal Register following publication of a proposed reclassification order in the Federal Register, a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and consideration of comments to a public docket.

(e) Within 180 days after the filing of a petition for reclassification under this section, the Commissioner will either deny the petition by order published in the Federal Register or give notice of the intent to initiate a change in the classification of the device.

(f) If a device is reclassified under this section, the administrative order effecting the reclassification may revoke any special control or premarket approval requirement that previously applied to the device but that is no longer applicable because of the change in classification.

(g) An administrative order under this section changing the classification of a device to class II may provide that such reclassification will not take effect until the effective date of a performance standard for the device established under section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or other special controls established under the order. An order under this section changing the classification of a device to class II may also establish the special controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.

(a) Sections 514(b) and 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act require the Commissioner to provide, by notice in the Federal Register, an opportunity for interested parties to petition to change the classification of a device based upon new information relevant to its classification when the Commissioner initiates a proceeding to develop a performance standard for the device if in class II or to issue an order requiring premarket approval for the device if in class III.

(b) If the Commissioner agrees that the new information submitted in response to a proposed order to require premarket approval of a device issued under section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act warrants a change in classification, the Commissioner shall follow the administrative order procedures under section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and § 860.130 to effect such a change.

(c) If the Commissioner does not agree that the new information submitted in response to a proposed order to require premarket approval of a device issued under section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act warrants a change in classification, the Commissioner will deny the petition.

(d) The procedures under section 514(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act are as follows:

(1) Within 30 days after publication of the Commissioner's notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, an interested person files a petition for reclassification in accordance with § 860.123.

(2) The Commissioner consults with the appropriate classification panel with regard to the petition in accordance with § 860.125.

(3) Within 60 days after publication of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the Commissioner either denies the petition or gives notice of the intent to initiate a change in classification in accordance with § 860.130.

(a) Section 515(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applies to proceedings to require premarket approval for a class III preamendments device.

(b) The Commissioner may require premarket approval for a class III preamendments device by administrative order published in the Federal Register following publication of a proposed order in the Federal Register, a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and consideration of comments from all affected stakeholders, including patients, payors, and providers. The panel will consider reclassification petitions received in the proceeding in accordance with section 513(e) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic and the applicable consultation procedures in § 860.125. A recommendation submitted to the Commissioner by the panel will be published in the Federal Register when the Commissioner publishes an administrative order under this section.

(a) Section 513(f)(3) of the act applies to proceedings for reclassification of a device currently in class III by operation of section 513(f)(1) of the act. This category includes any device that is to be first introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution after May 28, 1976, unless:

(1) It is substantially equivalent to another device that was in commercial distribution before that date and had not been regulated before that date as a new drug; or

(2) It is substantially equivalent to another device that was not in commercial distribution before such date but which has been classified into class I or class II; or

(3) The Commissioner has classified the device into class I or class II in response to a petition for reclassification under this section; or

(4) The device is classified under a request for De Novo classification under section 513(f)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(b) The procedures for effecting reclassification under section 513(f)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act when initiated by a manufacturer or importer are as follows:

(1) The manufacturer or importer of the device petitions for reclassification of the device in accordance with § 860.123.

(2) Within 30 days after the petition is filed, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner of any deficiencies in the petition that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it and allows the petitioner to supplement a deficient petition. Within 30 days after any supplemental material is received, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner whether the petition, as supplemented, is adequate for review.

(3) After determining that the petition contains no deficiencies precluding a decision on it, the Commissioner may for good cause shown refer the petition to the appropriate classification panel for its review and recommendation whether to approve or deny the petition.

(4) Within 90 days after the date the petition is referred to the panel, following the review procedures set forth in § 860.84(c) for the original classification of a “preamendments device”, the panel submits to the Commissioner its recommendation containing the information set forth in § 860.84(d). A panel recommendation is regarded as preliminary until the Commissioner has reviewed it, discussed it with the panel, if appropriate, and developed a proposed reclassification order. Preliminary panel recommendations are filed at Dockets Management Staff upon receipt and are available to the public and posted at https://www.regulations.gov.

(5) The panel recommendation is published in the Federal Register as soon as practicable and interested persons are provided an opportunity to comment on the recommendation.

(6) Within 90 days after the panel's recommendation is received (and no more than 210 days after the date the petition was filed), the Commissioner denies or approves the petition by order in the form of a letter to the petitioner. If the Commissioner approves the petition, the order will classify the device into class I or class II in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c) and subject to the applicable requirements of § 860.10, relating to the classification of implants and life-supporting or life-sustaining devices, and § 860.15, relating to exemptions from certain requirements of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

(7) Within a reasonable time after issuance of an order under this section, the Commissioner announces the order by notice published in the Federal Register.

(c) By administrative order published under section 513(f)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Commissioner may, on the Commissioner's own initiative, change the classification from class III under section 513(f)(1) either to class II, if the Commissioner determines that special controls in addition to general controls are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device and there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide such assurance, or to class I if the Commissioner determines that general controls alone would provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. The procedures for the reclassification proceeding under this paragraph (c) are as follows:

(1) The Commissioner publishes a proposed reclassification order in the Federal Register seeking comment on the proposed reclassification.

(2) The Commissioner may consult with the appropriate classification panel with respect to the reclassification of the device. The panel will consider reclassification in accordance with the consultation procedures of § 860.125.

(3) Following consideration of comments to a public docket and any panel recommendations or comments, the Commissioner may change the classification of a device by final administrative order published in the Federal Register.

(d) An administrative order under this section changing the classification of a device from class III to class II may establish the special controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.

(a) Section 520(l)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act applies to reclassification proceedings initiated by the Commissioner or in response to a request by a manufacturer or importer for reclassification of a device currently in class III by operation of section 520(l)(1). This section applies only to devices that the Food and Drug Administration regarded as “new drugs” before May 28, 1976.

(b) The procedures for effecting reclassification under section 520(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act when initiated by a manufacturer or importer are as follows:

(1) The manufacturer or importer of the device files a petition for reclassification of the device in accordance with § 860.123.

(2) Within 30 days after the petition is filed, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner of any deficiencies in the petition that prevent the Commissioner from making a decision on it, allowing the petitioner to supplement a deficient petition. Within 30 days after any supplemental material is received, the Commissioner notifies the petitioner whether the petition, as supplemented, is adequate for review.

(3) The Commissioner consults with the appropriate classification panel with regard to the petition in accordance with § 860.125.

(4) Within 180 days after the petition is filed (where the Commissioner has determined it to be adequate for review), the Commissioner, by order in the form of a letter to the petitioner, either denies the petition or classifies the device into class I or class II in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 860.3(c).

(5) Within a reasonable time after issuance of an order under this section, the Commissioner announces the order by notice published in the Federal Register.

(c) By administrative order, the Commissioner may, on the Commissioner's own initiative, change the classification from class III under section 520(l) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act either to class II, if the Commissioner determines that special controls in addition to general controls are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device and there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide such assurance, or to class I if the Commissioner determines that general controls alone would provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. The procedures for the reclassification proceeding under this paragraph (c) are as follows:

(1) The Commissioner publishes a proposed reclassification order in the Federal Register seeking comment on the proposed reclassification.

(2) The Commissioner may consult with the appropriate classification panel with respect to the reclassification of the device. The panel will consider reclassification in accordance with the consultation procedures of § 860.125.

(3) Following consideration of comments to a public docket and any panel recommendations or comments, the Commissioner may change the classification of a device by final administrative order published in the Federal Register.

(d) An administrative order under this section changing the classification of a device from class III to class II may establish the special controls necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.

(a) This part implements section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the act) with respect to the establishment, amendment, and revocation of performance standards applicable to devices intended for human use.

(b) The Food and Drug Administration may determine that a performance standard, as described under special controls for class II devices in § 860.7(b) of this chapter, is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Performance standards may be established for:

(1) A class II device;

(2) A class III device which, upon the effective date of the standard, is reclassified into class II; and

(3) A class III device, as a condition to premarket approval under section 515 of the act, to reduce or eliminate a risk or risks associated with such device.

(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.

In carrying out its duties under this section, the Food and Drug Administration will, to the maximum extent practical:

(a) Use personnel, facilities, and other technical support available in other Federal agencies;

(b) Consult with other Federal agencies concerned with standard setting and other nationally or internationally recognized standard-setting entities; and

(c) Invite participation, through conferences, workshops, or other means, by representatives of scientific, professional, industry, or consumer organizations who can make a significant contribution.

Any performance standard established under this part will include such provisions as the Food and Drug Administration determines are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device or devices for which it is established. Where necessary to provide such assurance, a standard will address (but need not be limited to):

(a) Performance characteristics of the device;

(b) The design, construction, components, ingredients, and properties of the device, and its compatibility with power systems and connections to such systems;

(c) The manufacturing processes and quality control procedures applicable to the device;

(d) Testing of the device on either a sample or a 100-percent basis by the manufacturer, or, if it is determined that no other more practical means are available to the Food and Drug Administration to assure the conformity of the device to the standard, providing for testing by the Food and Drug Administration or a third person to ensure that the device conforms to the standard;

(e) The publication of the results of each test or of certain tests of the device to show that the device conforms to the portions of the standard for which the test or tests were required;

(f) Manufacturers' certification to purchasers or to the Food and Drug Administration that the device conforms to the applicable performance standard;

(g) Restrictions on the sale and distribution of the device, but only to the extent authorized under section 520(e) of the act;

(h) The use, and the form and content, of labeling for the proper installation, maintenance, operation, and use of the device. Among the provisions that may be required in the labeling are warnings; storage and transportation information; expiration dates; the date and place of manufacture; the results that may be expected if the device is used properly; the ranges of accuracy of diagnostic information; instructions regarding the proper care of, and the proper components, accessories, or other equipment to be used with the device; and statements concerning the appropriate patient population, for example, a statement that the device is considered safe and effective only when used by, or in the treatment of, a patient who has been tested by particular designated procedures and found to have an illness or condition for which use of the device is indicated by a person skilled in the use of the device.

The procedure by which a performance standard for a device may be established, amended, or revoked is as follows:

(a) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) will publish in the Federal Register a notice of proposed rulemaking for the establishment, amendment, or revocation of any performance standard for a device.

(1) A notice of proposed rulemaking for the establishment or amendment of a performance standard for a device will:

(i) Set forth a finding, with supporting justification, that the performance standard is appropriate and necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device;

(ii) Set forth proposed findings with respect to the risk of illness or injury that the performance standard is intended to reduce or eliminate;

(iii) Invite interested persons to submit to the Food and Drug Administration, within 30 days of the publication of the notice, requests for changes in the classification of the device pursuant to § 860.132 of this chapter, based on new information relevant to the classification; and

(iv) Invite interested persons to submit an existing performance standard for the device, including a draft or proposed performance standard, for consideration by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs.

(2) A notice of proposed rulemaking for the revocation of a performance standard will set forth a finding, with supporting justification, that the performance standard is no longer necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of a device.

(b) A notice under this section will provide for a comment period of not less than 60 days.

(c) If, after publication of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA receives a request to change the classification of the device, FDA will, within 60 days of the publication of the notice and after consultation with the appropriate panel under § 860.125 of this chapter, either deny the request or give notice of its intent to initiate a change in the classification under § 860.130.

(d) If FDA initiates a rulemaking proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section, FDA will:

(1) Complete the proceeding and establish the performance standard for the device in accordance with this part and § 10.40 of this chapter; or

(2) Terminate the proceeding by publishing in the Federal Register a notice announcing such termination and the reasons therefor and, unless the proceeding is terminated because the device is a banned device, initiate a proceeding in accordance with section 513(e) of the act to reclassify the device; or

(3) Take other appropriate action.

(a) The Food and Drug Administration may accept an existing standard or a proposed or draft standard if it includes:

(1) A description of the procedures used to develop the standard and a list of the persons and organizations that participated in its development, to the extent that such information is available or reasonably obtainable;

(2) An identification of the specific portions of the existing standard that the person submitting the standard believes are appropriate for adoption as, or inclusion in, the proposed standard; and

(3) A summary of the test data, or, if requested by the Food and Drug Administration, all such data or other information supporting the specific portions of the standard identified by the person submitting the standard.

(b) The Food and Drug Administration will publish a notice in the Federal Register stating either that it has accepted, or accepted with modification, as a proposed standard, an existing standard or one that has been developed, or that an existing standard is not acceptable, together with the reasons therefor.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA), while engaged in the development of a proposed standard under this section will:

(a) Support its proposed performance standard by such test data or other documents or materials as may reasonably be required;

(b) Provide interested persons an opportunity to participate in the development of the standard by accepting comments and, where appropriate, holding public meetings on issues relating to development of the standard. Notice of the opportunity to participate in the development of the standard will be furnished in a manner reasonably calculated to reach the majority of persons interested in the development of the standard. This requirement shall be satisfied by publishing such a notice in the Federal Register. Whenever it is appropriate, FDA will use the Federal Register to make announcements about the standard development process of standard developers other than Federal agencies.

(c) Maintain records disclosing the course of development of the proposed standard, the comments and other information submitted by a person in connection with such development (including comments and information regarding the need for a standard), and such other information as may be required to evaluate the standard.

(a) The Food and Drug Administration will provide for periodic evaluation of performance standards to determine whether such standards should be changed to reflect new medical, scientific, or other technological data.

(b) The Food and Drug Administration may, on its own initiative or upon petition of an interested party, amend or revoke by regulation a standard established under this part.

(c) Any petition to amend or revoke a standard shall:

(1) Identify the specific device and standard for which the amendment or revocation is sought; and

(2) Be submitted in accordance with the requirements of § 10.30.

(d) Proceedings to amend or revoke a performance standard shall be conducted in accordance with the rulemaking procedures of § 10.40. In addition, a notice of proposed rulemaking to amend or revoke a standard shall set forth proposed findings with respect to the degree of risk or illness to be eliminated or reduced and the benefit the public will derive from the proposed amendment or revocation.

(a) A regulation establishing, amending, or revoking a performance standard will set forth the date upon which it will take effect. To the extent practical, consistent with the public health and safety, such effective date will be established so as to minimize economic loss to, and disruption or dislocation of, domestic and international trade.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no regulation establishing, amending, or revoking a standard may take effect before 1 year after the date of its publication unless:

(1) The Food and Drug Administration determines that an earlier effective date is necessary to protect the public health and safety; or

(2) The standard has been established for a device that, by the effective date of the standard, has been reclassified from class III to class II.

(c) The Food and Drug Administration may declare a proposed regulation amending a standard effective on publication in the Federal Register if it determines that making the regulation so effective is in the public interest. A proposed amendment of a performance standard made effective upon publication may not prohibit the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of a device that conforms to the standard without the change or changes provided in the proposed amendment until the effective date of any final action on the proposal.

(a) The Food and Drug Administration will establish advisory committees to which proposed regulations may be referred, and these committees shall consider such referrals in accordance with this section and part 14 of this chapter. Such advisory committees, which may not be classification panels, shall be considered ad hoc advisory committees. Their members shall be selected in accordance with §§ 14.82 and 14.84, except that no member may be a regular full-time FDA employee. Each advisory committee established under this section shall include as nonvoting members a representative of consumer interests and a representative of interests of the device manufacturing industry.

(b) A proposed regulation to establish, amend, or revoke a performance standard shall be referred to an advisory committee for a report and recommendation with respect to any matter involved in the proposed regulation which requires the exercise of scientific judgment if:

(1) The Food and Drug Administration determines that such referral is necessary or appropriate under the circumstances; or

(2) Requested by an interested person, in the form of a citizen petition in accordance with § 10.30 of this chapter, which is made within the period provided for comment on the proposed regulation and which demonstrates good cause for referral.

(c) When a proposed regulation is referred to an advisory committee, the Food and Drug Administration will furnish the committee with the data and information upon which the proposed regulation is based. After independently reviewing the materials furnished by the Food and Drug Administration and any other available data and information, the advisory committee shall, within 60 days of the referral, submit a report and recommendation on the proposed regulation, together with all underlying data and information and a statement of the reason or basis for the recommendation. A copy of the report and recommendation will be publicly displayed in the office of the Division of Dockets Management, Food and Drug Administration.

(d) Where appropriate, each proposed regulation establishing a standard published in the Federal Register will include a call for nominations to the advisory committee for that particular standard.

(a) This part sets forth the classification of clinical chemistry and clinical toxicology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.

(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 cannot show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required in § 807.87.

(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21 unless otherwise noted.

(d) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.

Many devices classified in this part are intended to be used with a calibrator. A calibrator has a reference value assigned to it which serves as the basis by which test results of patients are derived or calculated. The calibrator for a device may be (a) manufactured and distributed separately from the device with which it is intended to be used, (b) manufactured and distributed as one of several device components, such as in a kit of reagents, or (c) built-in as an integral part of the device. Because of the central role that a calibrator plays in the measurement process and the critical effect calibrators have on accuracy of test results, elsewhere in this part, all three of these types of calibrators (§§ 862.1150 and 862.3200 of this part) are classified into class II, notwithstanding the classification of the device with which it is intended to be used. Thus, a device and its calibrator may have different classifications, even if the calibrator is built into the device.

A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.

(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.

(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.

The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:

(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;

(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or

(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:

(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;

(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;

(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;

(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;

(5) For use in diabetes management;

(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;

(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;

(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and

(9) For near patient testing (point of care).

(a) Identification. An acid phosphatase (total or prostatic) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the acid phosphatase enzyme in plasma and serum.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) test system is a device intended to measure adrenocorticotropic hormone in plasma and serum. ACTH measurements are used in the differential diagnosis and treatment of certain disorders of the adrenal glands such as Cushing's syndrome, adrenocortical insufficiency, and the ectopic ACTH syndrome.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An alanine amino transferase (ALT/SGPT) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme alanine amino transferase (ALT) (also known as a serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase or SGPT) in serum and plasma. Alanine amino transferase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain liver diseases (e.g., viral hepatitis and cirrhosis) and heart diseases.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An albumin test system is a device intended to measure the albumin concentration in serum and plasma. Albumin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous diseases involving primarily the liver or kidneys.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An aldolase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme aldolase in serum or plasma. Aldolase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of the early stages of acute hepatitis and for certain muscle diseases such as progressive Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An aldosterone test system is a device intended to measure the hormone aldosterone in serum and urine. Aldosterone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of primary aldosteronism (a disorder caused by the excessive secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal gland), hypertension caused by primary aldosteronism, selective hypoaldosteronism, edematous states, and other conditions of electrolyte imbalance.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An alkaline phosphatase or isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure alkaline phosphatase or its isoenzymes (a group of enzymes with similar biological activity) in serum or plasma. Measurements of alkaline phosphatase or its isoenzymes are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver, bone, parathyroid, and intestinal diseases.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A newborn screening test system for amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitines using tandem mass spectrometry is a device that consists of stable isotope internal standards, control materials, extraction solutions, flow solvents, instrumentation, software packages, and other reagents and materials. The device is intended for the measurement and evaluation of amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitine concentrations from newborn whole blood filter paper samples. The quantitative analysis of amino acids, free carnitine, and acylcarnitines and their relationship with each other provides analyte concentration profiles that may aid in screening newborns for one or more inborn errors of amino acid, free carnitine, and acyl-carnitine metabolism.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Newborn Screening Test Systems for Amino Acids, Free Carnitine, and Acylcarnitines Using Tandem Mass Spectrometry.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. A delta-aminolevulinic acid test system is a device intended to measure the level of delta-aminolevulinic acid (a precursor of porphyrin) in urine. Delta-aminolevulinic acid measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lead poisoning and certain porphyrias (diseases affecting the liver, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems that are accompanied by increased urinary excretion of various heme compounds including delta-aminolevulinic acid).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An ammonia test system is a device intended to measure ammonia levels in blood, serum, and plasma, Ammonia measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of severe liver disorders, such as cirrhosis, hepatitis, and Reye's syndrome.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. An amylase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme amylase in serum and urine. Amylase measurements are used primarily for the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas).

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An androstenedione test system is a device intended to measure androstenedione (a substance secreted by the testes, ovary, and adrenal glands) in serum. Adrostenedione measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of females with excessive levels of androgen (male sex hormone) production.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An androsterone test system is a device intended to measure the hormone adrosterone in serum, plasma, and urine. Androsterone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gonadal and adrenal diseases.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An angiotensin I and renin test system is a device intended to measure the level of angiotensin I generated by renin in plasma. Angiotensin I measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain types of hypertension.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An angiotensin converting enzyme (A.C.E.) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of angiotensin converting enzyme in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases such as sarcoidosis, a disease characterized by the formation of nodules in the lungs, bones, and skin, and Gaucher's disease, a hereditary disorder affecting the spleen.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An ascorbic acid test system is a device intended to measure the level of ascorbic acid (vitamin C) in plasma, serum, and urine. Ascorbic acid measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of ascorbic acid dietary deficiencies.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An aspartate amino transferase (AST/SGOT) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme aspartate amino transferase (AST) (also known as a serum glutamic oxaloacetic transferase or SGOT) in serum and plasma. Aspartate amino transferase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain types of liver and heart disease.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A bilirubin (total or direct) test system is a device intended to measure the levels of bilirubin (total or direct) in plasma or serum. Measurements of the levels of bilirubin, an organic compound formed during the normal and abnormal distruction of red blood cells, if used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver, hemolytic hematological, and metabolic disorders, including hepatitis and gall bladder block.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A bilirubin (total and unbound) in the neonate test system is a device intended to measure the levels of bilirubin (total and unbound) in the blood (serum) of newborn infants to aid in indicating the risk of bilirubin encephalopathy (kernicterus).

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A urinary bilirubin and its conjugates (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to measure the levels of bilirubin conjugates in urine. Measurements of urinary bilirubin and its conjugates (nonquantitative) are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain liver diseases.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) test system is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure BNP in whole blood and plasma. Measurements of BNP are used as an aid in the diagnosis of patients with congestive heart failure.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is “Class II Special Control Guidance Document for B-Type Natriuretic Peptide Premarket Notifications; Final Guidance for Industry and FDA Reviewers.”

(a) Identification. The biotinidase test system is an in vitro diagnostic device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme biotinidase in blood. Measurements of biotinidase are used in the treatment and diagnosis of biotinidase deficiency, an inborn error of metabolism in infants, characterized by the inability to utilize dietary protein bound vitamin or to recycle endogenous biotin. The deficiency may result in irreversible neurological impairment.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is sale, distribution, and use in accordance with the prescription device requirements in § 801.109 of this chapter.

(a) Identification. A blood gases (PCO2, PO2) and blood pH test system is a device intended to measure certain gases in blood, serum, plasma or pH of blood, serum, and plasma. Measurements of blood gases (PCO2, PO2) and blood pH are used in the diagnosis and treatment of life-threatening acid-base disturbances.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A blood volume test system is a device intended to measure the circulating blood volume. Blood volume measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of shock, hemorrhage, and polycythemia vera (a disease characterized by an absolute increase in erythrocyte mass and total blood volume).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A C-peptides of proinsulin test system is a device intended to measure C-peptides of proinsulin levels in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements of C-peptides of proinsulin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with abnormal insulin secretion, including diabetes mellitus.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A calcitonin test system is a device intended to measure the thyroid hormone calcitonin (thyrocalcitonin) levels in plasma and serum. Calcitonin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases involving the thyroid and parathyroid glands, including carcinoma and hyperparathyroidism (excessive activity of the parathyroid gland).

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A calcium test system is a device intended to measure the total calcium level in serum. Calcium measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of parathyroid disease, a variety of bone diseases, chronic renal disease and tetany (intermittent muscular contractions or spasms).

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A calibrator is a device intended for medical purposes for use in a test system to establish points of reference that are used in the determination of values in the measurement of substances in human specimens. (See also § 862.2 in this part.)

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system intended for the early detection of pregnancy - (1) Identification. A human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system is a device intended for the early detection of pregnancy is intended to measure HCG, a placental hormone, in plasma or urine.

(2) Classification. Class II.

(b) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test system intended for any uses other than early detection of pregnancy - (1) Identification. A human chorionic goadotropin (HCG) test system is a device intended for any uses other than early detection of pregnancy (such as an aid in the diagnosis, prognosis, and management of treatment of persons with certain tumors or carcinomas) is intended to measure HCG, a placental hormone, in plasma or urine.

(2) Classification. Class III.

(3) Date PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required. As of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the act is required before the device described in paragraph (b)(1) may be commercially distributed. See § 862.3.

(a) Identification. A bicarbonate/carbon dioxide test system is a device intended to measure bicarbonate/carbon dioxide in plasma, serum, and whole blood. Bicarbonate/carbon dioxide measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous potentially serious disorders associated with changes in body acid-base balance.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A cardiac allograft gene expression profiling test system is a device that measures the ribonucleic acid (RNA) expression level of multiple genes and combines this information to yield a signature (pattern, classifier, index, score) to aid in the identification of a low probability of acute cellular rejection (ACR) in heart transplant recipients with stable allograft function.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cardiac Allograft Gene Expression Profiling Test Systems.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. A catecholamines (total) test system is a device intended to determine whether a group of similar compounds (epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine) are present in urine and plasma. Catecholamine determinations are used in the diagnosis and treatment of adrenal medulla and hypertensive disorders, and for catecholamine-secreting tumors (pheochromo-cytoma, neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma, and retinoblastoma).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A chloride test system is a device intended to measure the level of chloride in plasma, serum, sweat, and urine. Chloride measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of electrolyte and metabolic disorders such as cystic fibrosis and diabetic acidosis.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A cholesterol (total) test system is a device intended to measure cholesterol in plasma and serum. Cholesterol measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving excess cholesterol in the blood and lipid and lipoprotein metabolism disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A cholylglycine test system is a device intended to measure the bile acid cholylglycine in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disorders, such as cirrhosis or obstructive liver disease.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A chymotrypsin test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme chymotrypsin in blood and other body fluids and in feces. Chymotrypsin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic exocrine insufficiency.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A compound S (11-dioxycortisol) test system is a device intended to measure the level of compound S (11-dioxycortisol) in plasma. Compound S is a steroid intermediate in the biosynthesis of the adrenal hormone cortisol. Measurements of compound S are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain adrenal and pituitary gland disorders resulting in clinical symptoms of masculinization and hypertension.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A conjugated sulfolithocholic acid (SLCG) test system is a device intended to measure the bile acid SLCG in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disorders, such as cirrhosis or obstructive liver disease.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A copper test system is a device intended to measure copper levels in plasma, serum, and urine. Measurements of copper are used in the diagnosis and treatment of anemia, infections, inflammations, and Wilson's disease (a hereditary disease primarily of the liver and nervous system). Test results are also used in monitoring patients with Hodgkin's disease (a disease primarily of the lymph system).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A corticoids test system is a device intended to measure the levels of corticoids (hormones of the adrenal cortex) in serum and p lasma. Measurements of corticoids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the cortex of the adrenal glands, especially those associated with hypertension and electrolyte disturbances.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A corticosterone test system is a device intended to measure corticosterone (a steroid secreted by the adrenal gland) levels in plasma. Measurements of corticosterone are used in the diagnosis and treatment of adrenal disorders such as adrenal cortex disorders and blocks in cortisol synthesis.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A cortisol (hydrocortisone and hydroxycorticosterone) test system is a device intended to measure the cortisol hormones secreted by the adrenal gland in plasma and urine. Measurements of cortisol are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the adrenal gland.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A creatine test system is a device intended to measure creatine (a substance synthesized in the liver and pancreas and found in biological fluids) in plasma, serum, and urine. Measurements of creatine are used in the diagnosis and treatment of muscle diseases and endocrine disorders including hyperthyroidism.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A creatine phosphokinase/creatine kinase or isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme creatine phosphokinase or its isoenzymes (a group of enzymes with similar biological activity) in plasma and serum. Measurements of creatine phosphokinase and its isoenzymes are used in the diagnosis and treatment of myocardial infarction and muscle diseases such as progressive, Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An acute kidney injury test system is a device that is intended to measure one or more analytes in human samples as an aid in the assessment of a patient's risk for developing acute kidney injury. Test results are intended to be used in conjunction with other clinical and diagnostic findings, consistent with professional standards of practice, including confirmation by alternative methods.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Premarket notification submissions must detail an appropriate end user device training program that will be offered while marketing the device as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of incorrect interpretation of test results.

(2) As part of the risk management activities performed as part of your 21 CFR 820.30 design controls, you must document the appropriate end user device training program provided in your premarket notification submission to satisfy special control 21 CFR 862.1220(b)(1) that will be offered while marketing the device as part of your efforts to mitigate the risk of incorrect interpretation of test results.

(3) Robust clinical data demonstrating the positive predictive value, negative predictive value, sensitivity and specificity of the test in the intended use population must be submitted as part of the premarket notification submission.

(a) Identification. A creatinine test system is a device intended to measure creatinine levels in plasma and urine. Creatinine measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of renal diseases, in monitoring renal dialysis, and as a calculation basis for measuring other urine analytes.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A cyclic AMP test system is a device intended to measure the level of adenosine 3′, 5′-monophosphate (cyclic AMP) in plasma, urine, and other body fluids. Cyclic AMP measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of endocrine disorders, including hyperparathyroidism (overactivity of the parathyroid gland). Cyclic AMP measurements may also be used in the diagnosis and treatment of Graves' disease (a disorder of the thyroid) and in the differentiation of causes of hypercalcemia (elevated levels of serum calcium.)

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A cyclosporine test system is a device intended to quantitatively determine cyclosporine concentrations as an aid in the management of transplant patients receiving therapy with this drug. This generic type of device includes immunoassays and chromatographic assays for cyclosporine.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus Assays; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. A cystine test system is a device intended to measure the amino acid cystine in urine. Cystine measurements are used in the diagnosis of cystinuria (occurrence of cystine in urine). Patients with cystinuria frequently develop kidney calculi (stones).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A dehydroepiandrosterone (free and sulfate) test system is a device intended to measure dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and its sulfate in urine, serum, plasma, and amniotic fluid. Dehydroepiandrosterone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of DHEA-secreting adrenal carcinomas.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A desoxycorticosterone test system is a device intended to measure desoxycorticosterone (DOC) in plasma and urine. DOC measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with hypermineralocorticoidism (excess retention of sodium and loss of potassium) and other disorders of the adrenal gland.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid test system is a device intended to measure 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid (2,3-DPG) in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Measurements of 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid are used in the diagnosis and treatment of blood disorders that affect the delivery of oxygen by erythrocytes to tissues and in monitoring the quality of stored blood.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An estradiol test system is a device intended to measure estradiol, an estrogenic steroid, in plasma. Estradiol measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various hormonal sexual disorders and in assessing placental function in complicated pregnancy.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An estriol test system is a device intended to measure estriol, an estrogenic steroid, in plasma, serum, and urine of pregnant females. Estriol measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of fetoplacental distress in certain cases of high-risk pregnancy.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. As estrogens (total, in pregnancy) test system is a device intended to measure total estrogens in plasma, serum, and urine during pregnancy. The device primarily measures estrone plus estradiol. Measurements of total estrogens are used to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of fetoplacental distress in certain cases of high-risk pregnancy.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. As estrogens (total, nonpregnancy) test system is a device intended to measure the level of estrogens (total estrone, estradiol, and estriol) in plasma, serum, and urine of males and nonpregnant females. Measurement of estrogens (total, nonpregnancy) is used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous disorders, including infertility, amenorrhea (absence of menses) differentiation of primary and secondary ovarian malfunction, estrogen secreting testicular and ovarian tumors, and precocious puberty in females.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An estrone test system is a device intended to measure estrone, an estrogenic steroid, in plasma. Estrone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous disorders, including infertility, amenorrhea, differentiation of primary and secondary ovarian malfunction, estrogen secreting testicular and ovarian tumors, and precocious puberty in females.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An etiocholanolone test system is a device intended to measure etiocholanolone in serum and urine. Etiocholanolone is a metabolic product of the hormone testosterone and is excreted in the urine. Etiocholanolone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the testes and ovaries.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A fatty acids test system is a device intended to measure fatty acids in plasma and serum. Measurements of fatty acids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders of lipid metabolism.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A folic acid test system is a device intended to measure the vitamin folic acid in plasma and serum. Folic acid measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by the presence of megaloblasts (an abnormal red blood cell series) in the bone marrow.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A follicle-stimulating hormone test system is a device intended to measure follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in plasma, serum, and urine. FSH measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of pituitary gland and gonadal disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU) test system is a device intended to measure formiminolutamic acid in urine. FIGLU measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis of anemias, such as pernicious anemia and congenital hemolytic anemia.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A galactose test system is a device intended to measure galactose in blood and urine. Galactose measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of the hereditary disease galactosemia (a disorder of galactose metabolism) in infants.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Measurements of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of the hereditary disease galactosemia (disorder of galactose metabolism) in infants.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A gastric acidity test system is a device intended to measure the acidity of gastric fluid. Measurements of gastric acidity are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with peptic ulcer, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (peptic ulcer due to gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas), and related gastric disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A gastrin test system is a device intended to measure the hormone gastrin in plasma and serum. Measurements of gastrin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with ulcers, pernicious anemia, and the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (peptic ulcer due to a gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A globulin test system is a device intended to measure globulins (proteins) in plasma and serum. Measurements of globulin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with numerous illnesses including severe liver and renal disease, multiple myeloma, and other disorders of blood globulins.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A glucagon test system is a device intended to measure the pancreatic hormone glucagon in plasma and serum. Glucagon measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with various disorders of carbohydrate metabolism, including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A urinary glucose (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to measure glucosuria (glucose in urine). Urinary glucose (nonquantitative) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A glucose test system is a device intended to measure glucose quantitatively in blood and other body fluids. Glucose measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolism disorders including diabetes mellitus, neonatal hypoglycemia, and idiopathic hypoglycemia, and of pancreatic islet cell carcinoma.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A continuous glucose monitor secondary display is identified as a device intended to be used for passive real-time monitoring of continuous glucose monitoring data. It must not be capable of serving as a stand-alone primary display device. The primary display device, which is not a part of the continuous glucose monitor secondary display, directly receives the glucose data (for example, it communicates directly with transmitter) from the continuous glucose meter, which is not a part of the continuous glucose monitor secondary display, and is the primary means of viewing the continuous glucose monitor data and alerting the patient to a low or high glucose value. A continuous glucose monitor secondary display can be used by caregivers of people with diabetes to monitor a person's continuous glucose monitoring data. A device is not a continuous glucose monitor secondary display if the data from the primary display device is modified (for example, predicting future glucose values) or the patient can use the secondary display in lieu of a primary display device (for example, the primary display device is blinded or the primary display does not have to be near the person wearing the sensor and transmitter).

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The special controls for this device are:

(1) Devices being marketed must include appropriate measures to protect against unauthorized access to data and unauthorized modification of data.

(2) The labeling must prominently and conspicuously display a warning that states “Dosing decisions should not be made based on this device. The user should follow instructions on the continuous glucose monitoring system.”

(3) The labeling for the device must include a statement that reads “This device is not intended to replace self-monitoring practices as advised by a physician.”

(a) Identification. An insulin therapy adjustment device is a device intended to incorporate biological inputs, including glucose measurement data from a continuous glucose monitor, to recommend insulin therapy adjustments as an aid in optimizing insulin therapy regimens for patients with diabetes mellitus.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Design verification and validation must include the following:

(i) A complete description of the required data inputs, including timeframe over which data inputs must be collected and number of data points required for accurate recommendations;

(ii) A complete description of the types of device outputs and insulin therapy adjustment recommendations, including how the recommendations are generated;

(iii) Robust data demonstrating the clinical validity of the device outputs and insulin therapy recommendations;

(iv) A robust assessment of all input data specifications, including accuracy requirements for continuous glucose monitors and other devices generating data inputs, to ensure accurate and reliable therapy adjustment recommendations. This assessment must include adequate clinical justification for each specification;

(v) A detailed strategy to ensure secure and reliable means of data transmission to and from the device, including data integrity checks, accuracy checks, reliability checks, and security measures;

(vi) Robust data demonstrating that users can understand and appropriately interpret recommendations generated by the device; and

(vii) An appropriate mitigation strategy to minimize the occurrence of dosing recommendation errors, and to mitigate the risk to patients of any residual dosing recommendation errors to a clinically acceptable level.

(2) The device must not be intended for use in implementing automated insulin dosing.

(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10(b) labeling must include:

(i) The identification of specific insulin formulations that have been demonstrated to be compatible with use of the device;

(ii) A detailed description of the specifications of compatible devices that provide acceptable input data (e.g., continuous glucose monitors, insulin pumps) used to provide accurate and reliable therapy adjustment recommendations;

(iii) A detailed description of all types of required data (inputs) and dosing recommendations (outputs) that are provided by the device; and

(iv) A description of device limitations, and instructions to prevent possible disruption of accurate therapy adjustment recommendations (e.g., time zone changes due to travel).

(a) Identification. A gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGTP) in plasma and serum. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase and isoenzymes measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases such as alcoholic cirrhosis and primary and secondary liver tumors.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A glutathione test system is a device intended to measure glutathione (the tripeptide of glycine, cysteine, and glutamic acid) in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Glutathione measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain drug-induced hemolytic (erythrocyte destroying) anemias due to an inherited enzyme deficiency.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9

(a) Identification. A human growth hormone test system is a device intended to measure the levels of human growth hormone in plasma. Human growth hormone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A hemoglobin A1c test system is a device used to measure the percentage concentration of hemoglobin A1c in blood. Measurement of hemoglobin A1c is used as an aid in the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and as an aid in the identification of patients at risk for developing diabetes mellitus.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) The device must have initial and annual standardization verification by a certifying glycohemoglobin standardization organization deemed acceptable by FDA.

(2) The premarket notification submission must include performance testing to evaluate precision, accuracy, linearity, and interference, including the following:

(i) Performance testing of device precision must, at a minimum, use blood samples with concentrations near 5.0 percent, 6.5 percent, 8.0 percent, and 12 percent hemoglobin A1c. This testing must evaluate precision over a minimum of 20 days using at least three lots of the device and three instruments, as applicable.

(ii) Performance testing of device accuracy must include a minimum of 120 blood samples that span the measuring interval of the device and compare results of the new device to results of a standardized test method. Results must demonstrate little or no bias versus the standardized method.

(iii) Total error of the new device must be evaluated using single measurements by the new device compared to results of the standardized test method, and this evaluation must demonstrate a total error less than or equal to 6 percent.

(iv) Performance testing must demonstrate that there is little to no interference from common hemoglobin variants, including Hemoglobin C, Hemoglobin D, Hemoglobin E, Hemoglobin A2, and Hemoglobin S.

(3) When assay interference from Hemoglobin F or interference with other hemoglobin variants with low frequency in the population is observed, a warning statement must be placed in a black box and must appear in all labeling material for these devices describing the interference and any affected populations.

(a) Identification. A histidine test system is a device intended to measure free histidine (an amino acid) in plasma and urine. Histidine measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of hereditary histidinemia characterized by excess histidine in the blood and urine often resulting in mental retardation and disordered speech development.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A urinary homocystine (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify homocystine (an analogue of the amino acid cystine) in urine. The identification of urinary homocystine is used in the diagnosis and treatment of homocystinuria (homosystine in urine), a heritable metabolic disorder which may cause mental retardation.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A hydroxybutyric dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme alpha-hydroxybutric dehydrogenase (HBD) in plasma or serum. HBD measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of myocardial infarction, renal damage (such as rejection of transplants), certain hematological diseases (such as acute leukemias and megaloblastic anemias) and, to a lesser degree, liver disease.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-ketogenic steroids) test system is a device intended to measure corticosteroids that possess a dihydroxyacetone

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin test system is a device intended to measure 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin in urine. Measurements of 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid/serotonin are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carcinoid tumors of endocrine tissue.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 17-hydroxyprogesterone test system is a device intended to measure 17-hydroxyprogesterone (a steroid) in plasma and serum. Measurements of 17-hydroxyprogesterone are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders of the adrenal glands or the ovaries.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A hydroxyproline test system is a device intended to measure the amino acid hydroxyproline in urine. Hydroxyproline measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various collagen (connective tissue) diseases, bone disease such as Paget's disease, and endocrine disorders such as hyperparathyroidism and hyperthyroidism.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An immunoreactive insulin test system is a device intended to measure immunoreactive insulin in serum and plasma. Immunoreactive insulin measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various carbohydrate metabolism disorders, including diabetes mellitus, and hypoglycemia.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An iron (non-heme) test system is a device intended to measure iron (non-heme) in serum and plasma. Iron (non-heme) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases such as iron deficiency anemia, hemochromatosis (a disease associated with widespread deposit in the tissues of two iron-containing pigments, hemosiderin and hemofuscin, and characterized by pigmentation of the skin), and chronic renal disease.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An iron-binding capacity test system is a device intended to measure iron-binding capacity in serum. Iron-binding capacity measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of anemia.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An isocitric dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme isocitric dehydrogenase in serum and plasma. Isocitric dehydrogenase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disease such as viral hepatitis, cirrhosis, or acute inflammation of the biliary tract; pulmonary disease such as pulmonary infarction (local arrest or sudden insufficiency of the blood supply to the lungs), and diseases associated with pregnancy.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 17-ketosteroids test system is a device intended to measure 17-ketosteroids in urine. Measurements of 17-ketosteroids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the adrenal cortex and gonads and of other endocrine disorders, including hypertension, diabetes, and hypothyroidism.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A ketones (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify ketones in urine and other body fluids. Identification of ketones is used in the diagnosis and treatment of acidosis (a condition characterized by abnormally high acidity of body fluids) or ketosis (a condition characterized by increased production of ketone bodies such as acetone) and for monitoring patients on ketogenic diets and patients with diabetes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lactate dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase in serum. Lactate dehydrogenase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases such as acute viral hepatitis, cirrhosis, and metastatic carcinoma of the liver, cardiac diseases such as myocardial infarction, and tumors of the lung or kidneys.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes test system is a device intended to measure the activity of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes (a group of enzymes with similar biological activity) in serum. Measurements of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases, such as viral hepatitis, and myocardial infarction.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lactic acid test system is a device intended to measure lactic acid in whole blood and plasma. Lactic acid measurements that evaluate the acid-base status are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lactic acidosis (abnormally high acidity of the blood).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid test system is a device intended to measure the lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid. Lecithin and sphingomyelin are phospholipids (fats or fat-like substances containing phosphorus). Measurements of the lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid are used in evaluating fetal maturity.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A leucine aminopeptidase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme leucine amino-peptidase in serum, plasma, and urine. Leucine aminopeptidase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases such as viral hepatitis and obstructive jaundice.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lipase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzymes lipase in serum. Lipase measurements are used in diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the pancreas such as acute pancreatitis and obstruction of the pancreatic duct.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lipid (total) test system is a device intended to measure total lipids (fats or fat-like substances) in serum and plasma. Lipid (total) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases involving lipid metabolism and atherosclerosis.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lipoprotein test system is a device intended to measure lipoprotein in serum and plasma. Lipoprotein measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lipid disorders (such as diabetes mellitus), atherosclerosis, and various liver and renal diseases.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A luteinizing hormone test system is a device intended to measure luteinizing hormone in serum and urine. Luteinizing hormone measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gonadal dysfunction.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A lysozyme (muramidase) test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the bacteriolytic enzyme lysozyme (muramidase) in serum, plasma, leukocytes, and urine. Lysozyme measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of monocytic leukemia and kidney disease.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A magnesium test system is a device intended to measure magnesium levels in serum and plasma. Magnesium measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of hypomagnesemia (abnormally low plasma levels of magnesium) and hypermagnesemia (abnormally high plasma levels of magnesium).

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A malic dehydrogenase test system is a device that is intended to measure the activity of the enzyme malic dehydrogenase in serum and plasma. Malic dehydrogenase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of muscle and liver diseases, myocardial infarctions, cancer, and blood disorders such as myelogenous (produced in the bone marrow) leukemia.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A mucopolysaccharides (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to measure the levels of mucopolysaccharides in urine. Mucopolysaccharide measurements in urine are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various inheritable disorders that affect bone and connective tissues, such as Hurler's, Hunter's, Sanfilippo's, Scheie's Morquio's and Maroteaux-Lamy syndromes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A methylmalonic acid (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify methylmalonic acid in urine. The identification of methylmalonic acid in urine is used in the diagnosis and treatment of methylmalonic aciduria, a heritable metabolic disorder which, if untreated, may cause mental retardation.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A nitrite (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify nitrite in urine. Nitrite identification is used in the diagnosis and treatment of uninary tract infection of bacterial origin.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A nitrogen (amino-nitrogen) test system is a device intended to measure amino acid nitrogen levels in serum, plasma, and urine. Nitrogen (amino-nitrogen) measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain forms of severe liver disease and renal disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 5′-nucleotidase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme 5′-nucleotidase in serum and plasma. Measurements of 5′-nucleotidase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases and in the differentiations between liver and bone diseases in the presence of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A plasma oncometry test system is a device intended to measure plasma oncotic pressure. Plasma oncotic pressure is that portion of the total fluid pressure contributed by proteins and other molecules too large to pass through a specified membrane. Measurements of plasma oncotic pressure are used in the diagnosis and treatment of dehydration and circulatory disorders related to low serum protein levels and increased capillary permeability, such as edema and shock.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An ornithine carbamyl transferase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme ornithine carbamyl transferase (OCT) in serum. Ornithine carbamyl transferase measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases, such as infectious hepatitis, acute cholecystitis (inflammation of the gall bladder), cirrhosis, and liver metastases.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An osmolality test system is a device intended to measure ionic and nonionic solute concentration in body fluids, such as serum and urine. Osmolality measurement is used as an adjunct to other tests in the evaluation of a variety of diseases, including kidney diseases (e.g., chronic progressive renal failure), diabetes insipidus, other endocrine and metabolic disorders, and fluid imbalances.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An oxalate test system is a device intended to measure the concentration of oxalate in urine. Measurements of oxalate are used to aid in the diagnosis or treatment of urinary stones or certain other metabolic disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A parathyroid hormone test system is a device intended to measure the levels of parathyroid hormone in serum and plasma. Measurements of parathyroid hormone levels are used in the differential diagnosis of hypercalcemia (abnormally high levels of calcium in the blood) and hypocalcemia (abnormally low levels of calcium in the blood) resulting from disorders of calcium metabolism.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A urinary pH (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to estimate the pH of urine. Estimations of pH are used to evaluate the acidity or alkalinity of urine as it relates to numerous renal and metabolic disorders and in the monitoring of patients with certain diets.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A phenylalanine test system is a device intended to measure free phenylalanine (an amino acid) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements of phenylalanine are used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital phenylketonuria which, if untreated, may cause mental retardation.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A urinary phenylketones (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify phenylketones (such as phenylpyruvic acid) in urine. The identification of urinary phenylketones is used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital phenylketonuria which, if untreated, may cause mental retardation.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (6 PGD) in serum and erythrocytes. Measurements of 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain liver diseases (such as hepatitis) and anemias.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A phosphohexose isomerase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme phosphohexose isomerase in serum. Measurements of phosphohexose isomerase are used in the diagnosis and treatment of muscle diseases such as muscular dystrophy, liver diseases such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, and metastatic carcinoma.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A phospholipid test system is a device intended to measure phospholipids in serum and plasma. Measurements of phospholipids are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving lipid (fat) metabolism.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A phosphorus (inorganic) test system is a device intended to measure inorganic phosphorus in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements of phosphorus (inorganic) are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders, including parathyroid gland and kidney diseases, and vitamin D imbalance.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A human placental lactogen test system is a device intended to measure the hormone human placental lactogen (HPL), (also known as human chorionic somatomammotrophin (HCS)), in maternal serum and maternal plasma. Measurements of human placental lactogen are used in the diagnosis and clinical management of high-risk pregnancies involving fetal distress associated with placental insufficiency. Measurements of HPL are also used in pregnancies complicated by hypertension, proteinuria, edema, post-maturity, placental insufficiency, or possible miscarriage.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A porphobilinogen test system is a device intended to measure porphobilinogen (one of the derivatives of hemoglobin which can make the urine a red color) in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of porphyrias (primarily inherited diseases associated with disturbed porphyrine metabolism), lead poisoning, and other diseases characterized by alterations in the heme pathway.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A porphyrins test system is a device intended to measure porphyrins (compounds formed during the biosynthesis of heme, a constituent of hemoglobin, and related compounds) in urine and feces. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lead poisoning, porphyrias (primarily inherited diseases associated with disturbed porphyrin metabolism), and other diseases characterized by alterations in the heme pathway.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A potassium test system is a device intended to measure potassium in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used to monitor electrolyte balance in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases conditions characterized by low or high blood potassium levels.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A pregnanediol test system is a device intended to measure pregnanediol (a major urinary metabolic product of progesterone) in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the ovaries or placenta.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A pregnanetriol test system is a device intended to measure pregnanetriol (a precursor in the biosynthesis of the adrenal hormone cortisol) in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (congenital enlargement of the adrenal gland).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A pregnenolone test system is a device intended to measure pregnenolone (a precursor in the biosynthesis of the adrenal hormone cortisol and adrenal androgen) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the adrenal cortex or the gonads.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A progesterone test system is a device intended to measure progesterone (a female hormone) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the ovaries or placenta.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A prolactin (lactogen) test system is a device intended to measure the anterior pituitary polypeptide hormone prolactin in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the anterior pituitary gland or of the hypothalamus portion of the brain.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A protein (fractionation) test system is a device intended to measure protein fractions in blood, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and other body fluids. Protein fractionations are used as an aid in recognizing abnormal proteins in body fluids and genetic variants of proteins produced in diseases with tissue destruction.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A total protein test system is a device intended to measure total protein(s) in serum or plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of a variety of diseases involving the liver, kidney, or bone marrow as well as other metabolic or nutritional disorders.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A protein-bound iodine test system is a device intended to measure protein-bound iodine in serum. Measurements of protein-bound iodine obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A urinary protein or albumin (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to identify proteins or albumin in urine. Identification of urinary protein or albumin (nonquantitative) is used in the diagnosis and treatment of disease conditions such as renal or heart diseases or thyroid disorders, which are characterized by proteinuria or albuminuria.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A pyruvate kinase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme pyruvate kinase in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various inherited anemias due to pyruvate kinase deficiency or of acute leukemias.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A pyruvic acid test system is a device intended to measure pyruvic acid (an intermediate compound in the metabolism of carbohydrate) in plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the evaluation of electrolyte metabolism and in the diagnosis and treatment of acid-base and electrolyte disturbances or anoxia (the reduction of oxygen in body tissues).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A quality control material (assayed and unassayed) for clinical chemistry is a device intended for medical purposes for use in a test system to estimate test precision and to detect systematic analytical deviations that may arise from reagent or analytical instrument variation. A quality control material (assayed and unassayed) may be used for proficiency testing in interlaboratory surveys. This generic type of device includes controls (assayed and unassayed) for blood gases, electrolytes, enzymes, multianalytes (all kinds), single (specified) analytes, or urinalysis controls.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). Except when intended for use in donor screening tests, quality control materials (assayed and unassayed) are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A sodium test system is a device intended to measure sodium in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of aldosteronism (excessive secretion of the hormone aldosterone), diabetes insipidus (chronic excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, accompanied by extreme thirst), adrenal hypertension, Addison's disease (caused by destruction of the adrenal glands), dehydration, inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, or other diseases involving electrolyte imbalance.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A sorbitol dehydrogenase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme sorbitol dehydrogenase in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver disorders such as cirrhosis or acute hepatitis.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A blood specimen collection device is a device intended for medical purposes to collect and to handle blood specimens and to separate serum from nonserum (cellular) components prior to further testing. This generic type device may include blood collection tubes, vials, systems, serum separators, blood collection trays, or vacuum sample tubes.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A tacrolimus test system is a device intended to quantitatively determine tacrolimus concentrations as an aid in the management of transplant patients receiving therapy with this drug. This generic type of device includes immunoassays and chromatographic assays for tacrolimus.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus Assays; Guidance for Industry and FDA.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. A testosterone test system is a device intended to measure testosterone (a male sex hormone) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurement of testosterone are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders involving the male sex hormones (androgens), including primary and secondary hypogonadism, delayed or precocious puberty, impotence in males and, in females hirsutism (excessive hair) and virilization (masculinization) due to tumors, polycystic ovaries, and adrenogenital syndromes.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A thyroxine-binding globulin test system is a device intended to measure thyroxine (thyroid)-binding globulin (TBG), a plasma protein which binds thyroxine, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A thyroid stimulating hormone test system is a device intended to measure thyroid stimulating hormone, also known as thyrotrophin and thyrotrophic hormone, in serum and plasma. Measurements of thyroid stimulating hormone produced by the anterior pituitary are used in the diagnosis of thyroid or pituitary disorders.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A free thyroxine test system is a device intended to measure free (not protein bound) thyroxine (thyroid hormone) in serum or plasma. Levels of free thyroxine in plasma are thought to reflect the amount of thyroxine hormone available to the cells and may therefore determine the clinical metabolic status of thyroxine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A total thyroxine test system is a device intended to measure total (free and protein bound) thyroxine (thyroid hormone) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A triglyceride test system is a device intended to measure triglyceride (neutral fat) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with diabetes mellitus, nephrosis, liver obstruction, other diseases involving lipid metabolism, or various endocrine disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A total triiodothyronine test system is a device intended to measure the hormone triiodothyronine in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid diseases such as hyperthyroidism.

(b) Classification. Class II. This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A triiodothyronine uptake test system is a device intended to measure the total amount of binding sites available for binding thyroid hormone on the thyroxine-binding proteins, thyroid-binding globulin, thyroxine-binding prealbumin, and albumin of serum and plasma. The device provides an indirect measurement of thyrkoxine levels in serum and plasma. Measurements of triiodothyronine uptake are used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

(b) Classification. Class II. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A triose phosphate isomerase test system is a device intended to measure the activity of the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase in erythrocytes (red blood cells). Triose phosphate isomerase is an enzyme important in glycolysis (the energy-yielding conversion of glucose to lactic acid in various tissues). Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of congenital triose phosphate isomerase enzyme deficiency, which causes a type of hemolytic anemia.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A trypsin test system is a device intended to measure the activity of trypsin (a pancreatic enzyme important in digestion for the breakdown of proteins) in blood and other body fluids and in feces. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic disease.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A free tyrosine test system is a device intended to measure free tyrosine (an amono acid) in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases such as congenital tyrosinemia (a disease that can cause liver/kidney disorders) and as an adjunct to the measurement of phenylalanine in detecting congenital phenylketonuria (a disease that can cause brain damage).

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A urea nitrogen test system is a device intended to measure urea nitrogen (an end-product of nitrogen metabolism) in whole blood, serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain renal and metabolic diseases.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A uric acid test system is a device intended to measure uric acid in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous renal and metabolic disorders, including renal failure, gout, leukemia, psoriasis, starvation or other wasting conditions, and of patients receiving cytotoxic drugs.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A urinary calculi (stones) test system is a device intended for the analysis of urinary calculi. Analysis of urinary calculi is used in the diagnosis and treatment of calculi of the urinary tract.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A urinary urobilinogen (nonquantitative) test system is a device intended to detect and estimate urobilinogen (a bile pigment degradation product of red cell hemoglobin) in urine. Estimations obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver diseases and hemolytic (red cells) disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A uroporphyrin test system is a device intended to measure uroporphyrin in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of porphyrias (primarily inherited diseases associated with disturbed porphyrin metabolism), lead poisoning, and other diseases characterized by alterations in the heme pathway.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A vanilmandelic acid test system is a device intended to measure vanilmandelic acid in urine. Measurements of vanilmandelic acid obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of neuroblastoma, pheochromocytoma, and certain hypertensive conditions.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A vitamin A test system is a device intended to measure vitamin A in serum or plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of vitamin A deficiency conditions, including night blindness, or skin, eye, or intestinal disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A vitamin B12 test system is a device intended to measure vitamin B12 in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of anemias of gastrointestinal malabsorption.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A vitamin E test system is a device intended to measure vitamin E (tocopherol) in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of infants with vitamin E deficiency syndrome.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A xylose test system is a device intended to measure xylose (a sugar) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gastrointestinal malabsorption syndrome (a group of disorders in which there is subnormal absorption of dietary constituents and thus excessive loss from the body of the nonabsorbed substances).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A vitamin D test system is a device intended for use in clinical laboratories for the quantitative determination of 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25-OH-D) and other hydroxylated metabolites of vitamin D in serum or plasma to be used in the assessment of vitamin D sufficiency.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). Vitamin D test systems must comply with the following special controls:

(1) Labeling in conformance with 21 CFR 809.10 and

(2) Compliance with existing standards of the National Committee on Clinical Laboratory Standards.

(a) Identification. A total 25-hydroxyvitamin D mass spectrometry test system is a device intended for use in clinical laboratories for the quantitative determination of total 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25-OH-D) in serum or plasma to be used in the assessment of vitamin D sufficiency.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in part 807, subpart E, of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The device must comply with the following special controls:

(1) The device must have initial and annual standardization verification by a certifying vitamin D standardization organization deemed acceptable by FDA.

(2) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include detailed descriptions of performance testing conducted to evaluate precision, accuracy, linearity, interference, including the following:

(i) Performance testing of device precision must, at a minimum, use intended sample type with Vitamin D concentrations at medically relevant decision points. At least one sample in the precision studies must be an unmodified patient sample. This testing must evaluate repeatability and reproducibility using a protocol from an FDA-recognized standard.

(ii) Performance testing of device accuracy must include a minimum of 115 serum or plasma samples that span the measuring interval of the device and compare results of the new device to results of a reference method or a legally marketed standardized mass spectrometry based vitamin D assay. The results must be described in the 21 CFR 809.10(b)(12) compliant labeling of the device.

(iii) Interference from vitamin D analogs and metabolites including vitamin D2, vitamin D3, 1-hydroxyvitamin D2, 1-hydroxyvitamin D3, 3-Epi-25-Hydroxyvitamin D2, 3-Epi-25-Hydroxyvitamin D3, 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D2, 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3, 3-Epi-1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D2, and 3-Epi-1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3, 25, 26-Dihydroxyvitamin-D3, 24 (R), 25-dihydroxyvitamin-D3, 23 (R), 25-dihydroxyvitamin-D3 must be described in the 21 CFR 809.10(b)(7) compliant labeling of the device.

(3) The 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must be supported by a reference range study representative of the performance of the device. The study must be conducted using samples collected from apparently healthy male and female adults at least 21 years of age and older from at least 3 distinct climatic regions within the United States in different weather seasons. The ethnic, racial, and gender background of this study population must be representative of the U.S. population demographics.

(4) The results of the device as provided in the 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling and any test report generated must be reported as only total 25-hydroxyvitamin D.

(a) Identification. General purpose laboratory equipment labeled or promoted for a specific medical use is a device that is intended to prepare or examine specimens from the human body and that is labeled or promoted for a specific medical use.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is identified in paragraph (a) of this section and is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The device is also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. A calculator/data processing module for clinical use is an electronic device intended to store, retrieve, and process laboratory data.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A continuous glucose monitor data management system is an electronic device intended to acquire, process, and correlate retrospective data from a continuous glucose monitoring device. This device is intended to be used by patients or their healthcare providers when determining therapeutic strategies. A continuous glucose monitor data management system is not a drug dose calculator and does not provide treatment recommendations.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A centrifugal chemistry analyzer for clinical use is an automatic device intended to centrifugally mix a sample and a reagent and spectrophotometrically measure concentrations of the sample constituents. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A continuous flow sequential multiple chemistry analyzer for clinical use is a modular analytical instrument intended to simultaneously perform multiple chemical procedures using the principles of automated continuous flow systems. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A discrete photometric chemistry analyzer for clinical use is a device intended to duplicate manual analytical procedures by performing automatically various steps such as pipetting, preparing filtrates, heating, and measuring color intensity. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes. Different models of the device incorporate various instrumentation such as micro analysis apparatus, double beam, single, or dual channel photometers, and bichromatic 2-wavelength photometers. Some models of the device may include reagent-containing components that may also serve as reaction units.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A micro chemistry analyzer for clinical use is a device intended to duplicate manual analytical procedures by performing automatically various steps such as pipetting, preparing filtrates, heating, and measuring color intensity. The distinguishing characteristic of the device is that it requires only micro volume samples obtainable from pediatric patients. This device is intended for use in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A chromatographic separation material for clinical use is a device accessory (e.g., ion exchange absorbents, ion exchagne resins, and ion papers) intended for use in ion exchange chromatography, a procedure in which a compound is separated from a solution.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A gas liquid chromatography system for clinical use is a device intended to separate one or more drugs or compounds from a mixture. Each of the constituents in a vaporized mixture of compounds is separated according to its vapor pressure. The device may include accessories such as columns, gases, column supports, and liquid coating.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A high pressure liquid chromatography system for clinical use is a device intended to separate one or more drugs or compounds from a solution by processing the mixture of compounds (solutes) through a column packed with materials of uniform size (stationary phase) under the influence of a high pressure liquid (mobile phase). Separation of the solutes occurs either by absorption, sieving, partition, or selective affinity.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A high throughput genomic sequence analyzer for clinical use is an analytical instrument system intended to generate, measure and sort signals in order to analyze nucleic acid sequences in a clinical sample. The device may include a signal reader unit; reagent handling, dedicated instrument control, and other hardware components; raw data storage mechanisms; data acquisition software; and software to process detected signals.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The special controls for this device are:

(1) The labeling for the instrument system must reference legally marketed pre-analytical and analytical reagents to be used with the instrument system and include or reference legally marketed analytical software that includes sequence alignment and variant calling functions, to be used with the instrument system.

(2) The labeling for the instrument system must include a description of the following information:

(i) The specimen type(s) validated as an appropriate source of nucleic acid for this instrument.

(ii) The type(s) of nucleic acids (e.g., germline DNA, tumor DNA) validated with this instrument.

(iii) The type(s) of sequence variations (e.g. single nucleotide variants, insertions, deletions) validated with this instrument.

(iv) The type(s) of sequencing (e.g., targeted sequencing) validated with this instrument.

(v) The appropriate read depth for the sensitivity claimed and validation information supporting those claims.

(vi) The nucleic acid extraction method(s) validated for use with the instrument system.

(vii) Limitations must specify the types of sequence variations that the instrument cannot detect with the claimed accuracy and precision (e.g., insertions or deletions larger than a certain size, translocations).

(viii) Performance characteristics of the instrument system must include:

(A) Reproducibility data generated using multiple instruments and multiple operators, and at multiple sites. Samples tested must include all claimed specimen types, nucleic acid types, sequence variation types, and types of sequencing. Variants queried shall be located in varying sequence context (e.g., different chromosomes, GC-rich regions). Device results shall be compared to reference sequence data with high confidence.

(B) Accuracy data for all claimed specimen types and nucleic acid types generated by testing a panel of well characterized samples to query all claimed sequence variation types, types of sequencing, and sequences located in varying sequence context (e.g., different chromosomes, GC-rich regions). The well-characterized sample panel shall include samples from at least two sources that have highly confident sequence based on well-validated sequencing methods. At least one reference source shall have sequence generated independently of the manufacturer with respect to technology and analysis. Percent agreement and percent disagreement with the reference sequences must be described for all regions queried by the instrument.

(C) If applicable, data describing endogenous or exogenous substances that may interfere with the instrument system.

(D) If applicable, data demonstrating the ability of the system to consistently generate an accurate result for a given sample across different indexing primer combinations.

(ix) The upper and lower limit of input nucleic acid that will achieve the claimed accuracy and reproducibility. Data supporting such claims must also be summarized.

(a) Identification. A thin-layer chromatography (TLC) system for clinical use is a device intended to separate one or more drugs or compounds from a mixture. The mixture of compounds is absorbed onto a stationary phase or thin layer of inert material (e.g., cellulose, alumina, etc.) and eluted off by a moving solvent (moving phase) until equilibrium occurs between the two phases.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9. Particular components of TLC systems, i.e., the thin-layer chromatography apparatus, TLC atomizer, TLC developing tanks, and TLC ultraviolet light, are exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180 of this chapter, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198 of this chapter, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. A colorimeter, a photometer, or a spectrophotometer for clinical use is an instrument intended to measure radiant energy emitted, transmitted, absorbed, or reflected under controlled conditions. The device may include a monochromator to produce light of a specific wavelength.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A clinical sample concentrator is a device intended to concentrate (by dialysis, evaporation, etc.) serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and other body fluids before the fluids are analyzed.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A beta or gamma counter for clinical use is a device intended to detect and count beta or gamma radiation emitted by clinical samples. Clinical samples are prepared by addition of a radioactive reagent to the sample. These measurements are useful in the diagnosis and treatment of various disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A densitometer/scanner (integrating, reflectance, thin-layer chromatography, or radiochromatogram) for clinical use is device intended to measure the concentration of a substance on the surface of a film or other support media by either a photocell measurement of the light transmission through a given area of the medium or, in the case of the radiochromatogram scanner, by measurement of the distribution of a specific radio-active element on a radiochromatogram.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An electrophoresis apparatus for clinical use is a device intended to separate molecules or particles, including plasma proteins, lipoproteins, enzymes, and hemoglobulins on the basis of their net charge in specified buffered media. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes as an aid in the diagnosis and treatment of certain disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An enzyme analyzer for clinical use is a device intended to measure enzymes in plasma or serum by nonkinetic or kinetic measurement of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of enzymes as an aid in the diagnosis and treatment of certain enzyme-related disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A flame emission photometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure the concentration of sodium, potassium, lithium, and other metal ions in body fluids. Abnormal variations in the concentration of these substances in the body are indicative of certain disorders (e.g., electrolyte imbalance and heavy metal intoxication) and are, therefore, useful in diagnosis and treatment of those disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A fluorometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure by fluorescence certain analytes. Fluorescence is the property of certain substances of radiating, when illuminated, a light of a different wavelength. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of analytes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. Instrumentation for clinical multiplex test systems is a device intended to measure and sort multiple signals generated by an assay from a clinical sample. This instrumentation is used with a specific assay to measure multiple similar analytes that establish a single indicator to aid in diagnosis. Such instrumentation may be compatible with more than one specific assay. The device includes a signal reader unit, and may also integrate reagent handling, hybridization, washing, dedicated instrument control, and other hardware components, as well as raw data storage mechanisms, data acquisition software, and software to process detected signals.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9. The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Instrumentation for Clinical Multiplex Test Systems.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. A microtitrator for clinical use is a device intended for use in micronanalysis to measure the concentration of a substance by reacting it with a measure “micro” volume of a known standardized solution.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A nephelometer for clinical use is a device intended to estimate the concentration of particles in a suspension by measuring their light scattering properties (the deflection of light rays by opaque particles in their path). The device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure the concentration of a variety of analytes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A plasma oncometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure plasma oncotic pressure, which is that portion of the total plasma osmotic pressure contributed by protein and other molecules too large to pass through a specified semipermeable membrane. Because variations in plasma oncotic pressure are indications of certain disorders, measurements of the variations are useful in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An osmometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure the osmotic pressure of body fluids. Osmotic pressure is the pressure required to prevent the passage of a solution with a lesser solute concentration into a solution with greater solute concentration when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane. The concentration of a solution affects its osmotic pressure, freezing point, and other physiochemical properties. Osmometers determine osmotic pressure by methods such as the measurement of the freezing point. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of body fluid disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A pipetting and diluting system for clinical use is a device intended to provide an accurately measured volume of liquid at a specified temperature for use in certain test procedures. This generic type of device system includes serial, manual, automated, and semi-automated dilutors, pipettors, dispensers, and pipetting stations.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A refractometer for clinical use is a device intended to determine the amount of solute in a solution by measuring the index of refraction (the ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to the velocity of light in the solution). The index of refraction is used to measure the concentration of certain analytes (solutes), such a plasma total proteins and urinary total solids. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain conditions.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An atomic absorption spectrophotometer for clinical use is a device intended to identify and measure elements and metals (e.g., lead and mercury) in human specimens. The metal elements are identified according to the wavelength and intensity of the light that is absorbed when the specimen is converted to the atomic vapor phase. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of certain conditions.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A mass spectrometer for clinical use is a device intended to identify inorganic or organic compounds (e.g., lead, mercury, and drugs) in human specimens by ionizing the compound under investigation and separating the resulting ions by means of an electrical and magnetic field according to their mass.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An automated urinalysis system is a device intended to measure certain of the physical properties and chemical constituents of urine by procedures that duplicate manual urinalysis systems. This device is used in conjunction with certain materials to measure a variety of urinary analytes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A plasma viscometer for clinical use is a device intended to measure the viscosity of plasma by determining the time period required for the plasma to flow a measured distance through a calibrated glass tube. Measurements obtained by this device are used to monitor changes in the amount of solids present in plasma in various disorders.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. An acetaminophen test system is a device intended to measure acetaminophen, an analgestic and fever reducing drug, in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of acetaminophen overdose.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An amikacin test system is a device intended to measure amikacin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of amikacin overdose and in monitoring levels of amikacin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An alcohol test system is a device intented to measure alcohol (e.g., ethanol, methanol, isopropanol, etc.) in human body fluids (e.g., serum, whole blood, and urine). Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of alcohol intoxication and poisoning.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A breath-alcohol test system is a device intened to measure alcohol in the human breath. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis of alcohol intoxication.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A breath nitric oxide test system is a device intended to measure fractional nitric oxide in human breath. Measurement of changes in fractional nitric oxide concentration in expired breath aids in evaluating an asthma patient's response to anti-inflammatory therapy, as an adjunct to established clinical and laboratory assessments of asthma. A breath nitric oxide test system combines chemiluminescence detection of nitric oxide with a pneumotachograph, display, and dedicated software.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Breath Nitric Oxide Test System.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. An amphetamine test system is a device intended to measure amphetamine, a central nervous system stimulating drug, in plasma and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of amphetamine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of amphetamine to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). An amphetamine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. An antimony test system is a device intended to measure antimony, a heavy metal, in urine, blood, vomitus, and stomach contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of antimony poisoning.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. An arsenic test system is a device intended to measure arsenic, a poisonous heavy metal, in urine, vomitus, stomach contents, nails, hair, and blood. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of arsenic poisoning.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A barbiturate test system is a device intended to measure barbiturates, a class of hypnotic and sedative drugs, in serum, urine, and gastric contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of barbiturate use or overdose and in monitoring levels of barbiturate to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A barbiturate test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A benzodiazepine test system is a device intended to measure any of the benzodiazepine compounds, sedative and hypnotic drugs, in blood, plasma, and urine. The benzodiazepine compounds include chlordiazepoxide, diazepam, oxazepam, chlorzepate, flurazepam, and nitrazepam. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of benzodiazepine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of benzodiazepines to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A benzodiazepine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A clinical toxicology calibrator is a device intended for medical purposes for use in a test system to establish points of reference that are used in the determination of values in the measurement of substances in human specimens. A clinical toxicology calibrator can be a mixture of drugs or a specific material for a particular drug (e.g., ethanol, lidocaine, etc.). (See also § 862.2 in this part.)

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A carbon monoxide test system is a device intended to measure carbon monoxide or carboxyhemoglobin (carbon monoxide bound to the hemoglobin in the blood) in blood. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of or confirmation of carbon monoxide poisoning.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A cholinesterase test system is a device intended to measure cholinesterase (an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of acetylcholine to choline) in human specimens. There are two principal types of cholinesterase in human tissues. True cholinesterase is present at nerve endings and in erythrocytes (red blood cells) but is not present in plasma. Pseudo cholinesterase is present in plasma and liver but is not present in erythrocytes. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of cholinesterase inhibition disorders (e.g., insecticide poisoning and succinylcholine poisoning).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A cocaine and cocaine metabolite test system is a device intended to measure cocaine and a cocaine metabolite (benzoylecgonine) in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of cocaine use or overdose.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A cocaine and cocaine metabolite test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A codeine test system is a device intended to measure codeine (a narcotic pain-relieving drug) in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of codeine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of codeine to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A codeine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A clinical toxicology control material is a device intended to provide an estimation of the precision of a device test system and to detect and monitor systematic deviations from accuracy resulting from reagent or instrument defects. This generic type of device includes various single, and multi-analyte control materials.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A digitoxin test system is a device intended to measure digitoxin, a cardiovascular drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of digitoxin overdose and in monitoring levels of digitoxin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A digoxin test system is a device intended to measure digoxin, a cardiovascular drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of digoxin overdose and in monitoring levels of digoxin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A diphenylhydantoin test system is a device intended to measure diphenylhydantoin, an antiepileptic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of diphenylhydantoin overdose and in monitoring levels of diphenylhydantoin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A drug metabolizing enzyme genotyping system is a device intended for use in testing deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) extracted from clinical samples to identify the presence or absence of human genotypic markers encoding a drug metabolizing enzyme. This device is used as an aid in determining treatment choice and individualizing treatment dose for therapeutics that are metabolized primarily by the specific enzyme about which the system provides genotypic information.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Drug Metabolizing Enzyme Genotyping Test System.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. An ethosuximide test system is a device intended to measure ethosuximide, an antiepileptic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of ethosuximide overdose and in monitoring levels of ethosuximide to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A gentamicin test system is a device intended to measure gentamicin, an antibiotic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of gentamicin overdose and in monitoring levels of gentamicin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A kanamycin test system is a device intended to measure kanamycin, an antibiotic drug, in plasma and serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of kanamycin overdose and in monitoring levels of kanamycin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A lead test system is a device intended to measure lead, a heavy metal, in blood and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lead poisoning.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A lidocaine test system is a device intended to measure lidocaine, an antiarrythmic and anticonvulsant drug, in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of lidocaine overdose or in monitoring levels of lidocaine to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A lithium test system is a device intended to measure lithium (from the drug lithium carbonate) in serum or plasma. Measurements of lithium are used to assure that the proper drug dosage is administered in the treatment of patients with mental disturbances, such as manic-depressive illness (bipolar disorder).

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) test system is a device intended to measure lysergic acid diethylamide, a hallucinogenic drug, in serum, urine, and gastric contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of LSD use or overdose.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A meprobamate test system is a device intended to measure meprobamate in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used to detect the presence of meprobamate to diagnose the use or overdose of meprobamate or structurally-related drug compounds (e.g., prodrugs).

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Design verification and validation must include:

(i) Robust data demonstrating the accuracy of the device when used in the intended specimen matrix. The accuracy data must include a comparison between the meprobamate test system results and meprobamate results that are measured on an FDA-accepted measurement method that is specific and accurate (e.g., gas or liquid chromatography combined with tandem mass spectrometry).

(ii) Robust analytical data demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including, but not limited to, specificity, cross-reactivity to relevant endogenous and exogenous substances, and the reproducibility of analyte detection around the cutoff(s).

(2) The intended use of the device must not include an indication for use in monitoring therapeutic drug concentrations or informing dosing adjustment decisions.

(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10 labeling must include the following:

(i) If indicated for use as a screening test to identify preliminary results for further confirmation, the intended use must state “This assay provides only a preliminary analytical result. A more specific alternative chemical confirmatory method (e.g., gas or liquid chromatography and mass spectrometry) must be used to obtain a confirmed analytical result. Clinical consideration and professional judgment must be exercised with any drug of abuse test, particularly when the preliminary test result is positive.”

(ii) A limiting statement that reads as follows: “This test should not be used to monitor therapeutic drug concentrations or to inform dosing adjustment decisions.”

(a) Identification. A mercury test system is a device intended to measure mercury, a heavy metal, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of mercury poisoning.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A methamphetamine test system is a device intended to measure methamphetamine, a central nervous system stimulating drug, in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of methamphetamine use or overdose.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A methamphetamine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A methadone test system is a device intended to measure methadone, an addictive narcotic pain-relieving drug, in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of methadone use or overdose and to determine compliance with regulations in methadone maintenance treatment.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A methadone test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A methaqualone test system is a device intended to measure methaqualone, a hypnotic and sedative drug, in urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of methaqualone use or overdose.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A methaqualone test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A morphine test system is a device intended to measure morphine, an addictive narcotic pain-relieving drug, and its analogs in serum, urine, and gastric contents. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of morphine use or overdose and in monitoring levels of morphine and its analogs to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A morphine test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A neuroleptic drugs radioceptor assay test system is a device intended to measure in serum or plasma the dopamine receptor blocking activity of neuroleptic drugs and their active metabolites. A neuroleptic drug has anti-psychotic action affecting principally psychomotor activity, is generally without hypnotic effects, and is a tranquilizer. Measurements obtained by this device are used to aid in determining whether a patient is taking the prescribed dosage level of such drugs.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. An opiate test system is a device intended to measure any of the addictive narcotic pain-relieving opiate drugs in blood, serum, urine, gastric contents, and saliva. An opiate is any natural or synthetic drug that has morphine-like pharmocological actions. The opiates include drugs such as morphine, morphine glucoronide, heroin, codeine, nalorphine, and meperedine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of opiate use or overdose and in monitoring the levels of opiate administration to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). An opiate test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. An organophosphate test system is a device intended to measure organophosphate metabolites quantitatively in human urine from individuals who have signs and symptoms consistent with cholinesterase poisoning. The data obtained by this device is intended to aid in the confirmation and investigation of organophosphate exposure.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) The distribution of these devices is limited to laboratories with experienced personnel who are trained to measure and evaluate organophosphate exposure and guide public health response.

(2) Analytical testing must demonstrate the device has appropriate performance characteristics, including adequate precision and accuracy across the measuring range and near medical decision points.

(a) Identification. A phenobarbitol test system is a device intended to measure phenobarbital, an antiepileptic and sedative-hypnotic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of phenobarbital use or overdose and in monitoring levels of phenobarbital to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A phenothiazine test system is a device intended to measure any of the drugs of the phenothiazine class in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of phenothiazine use or overdose.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A primidone test system is a device intended to measure primidone, an antiepileptic drug, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of primidone overdose and in monitoring levels of primidone to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A propoxyphene test system is a device intended to measure propoxyphene, a pain-relieving drug, in serum, plasma, and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of propoxyphene use or overdose or in monitoring levels of propoxyphene to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A propoxyphene test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A quinine test system is a device intended to measure quinine, a fever-reducing and pain-relieving drug intended in the treatment of malaria, in serum and urine. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of quinine overdose and malaria.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. Reagents for molecular diagnostic test systems are reagents other than analyte specific reagents used as part of molecular diagnostic test systems, such as polymerases, nucleotides and nucleotide mixes, master mixes in which individual reagents are optimized to be used together, and labeled nucleic acid molecules.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedure in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter, subject to the limitations in § 862.9.

(a) Identification. A salicylate test system is a device intended to measure salicylates, a class of analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory drugs that includes aspirin, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in diagnosis and treatment of salicylate overdose and in monitoring salicylate levels to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A sirolimus test system is a device intended to quantitatively determine sirolimus concentrations in whole blood. Measurements are used as an aid in management of transplant patients receiving therapy with sirolimus.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special control is FDA's guidance document entitled “Class II Special Controls Guidance Document: Sirolimus Test Systems.” See § 862.1(d) for the availability of this guidance document.

(a) Identification. A sulfonamide test system is a device intended to measure sulfonamides, any of the antibacterial drugs derived from sulfanilamide, in human specimens. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of sulfonamide overdose and in monitoring sulfonamide levels to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class I.

(a) Identification. A cannabinoid test system is a device intended to measure any of the cannabinoids, hallucinogenic compounds endogenous to marihuana, in serum, plasma, saliva, and urine. Cannabinoid compounds include delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol, cannabidiol, cannabinol, and cannabichromene. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of cannabinoid use or abuse and in monitoring levels of cannabinoids during clinical investigational use.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A cannabinoid test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A theophylline test system is a device intended to measure theophylline (a drug used for stimulation of the muscles in the cardiovascular, respiratory, and central nervous systems) in serum and plasma. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of theophylline overdose or in monitoring levels of theophylline to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A tobramycin test system is a device intended to measure tobramycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic drug, in plasma and serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of tobramycin overdose and in monitoring levels of tobramycin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) Identification. A tricyclic antidepressant drugs test system is a device intended to measure any of the tricyclic antidepressant drugs in serum. The tricyclic antidepressant drugs include imipramine, desipramine, amitriptyline, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and doxepin. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of chronic depression to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). A tricyclic antidepressant drugs test system is not exempt if it is intended for any use other than employment or insurance testing or is intended for Federal drug testing programs. The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 862.9, provided the test system is intended for employment and insurance testing and includes a statement in the labeling that the device is intended solely for use in employment and insurance testing, and does not include devices intended for Federal drug testing programs (e.g., programs run by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA), the Department of Transportation (DOT), and the U.S. military).

(a) Identification. A vancomycin test system is a device intended to measure vancomycin, an antibiotic drug, in serum. Measurements obtained by this device are used in the diagnosis and treatment of vancomycin overdose and in monitoring the level of vancomycin to ensure appropriate therapy.

(b) Classification. Class II.

(a) This part sets forth the classification of hematology and pathology devices intended for human use that are in commercial distribution.

(b) The identification of a device in a regulation in this part is not a precise description of every device that is, or will be, subject to the regulation. A manufacturer who submits a premarket notification submission for a device under part 807 may not show merely that the device is accurately described by the section title and identification provisions of a regulation in this part, but shall state why the device is substantially equivalent to other devices, as required by § 807.87.

(c) References in this part to regulatory sections of the Code of Federal Regulations are to chapter I of title 21, unless otherwise noted.

(d) Guidance documents referenced in this part are available on the Internet at http://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm.

A device included in this part that is classified into class III (premarket approval) shall not be commercially distributed after the date shown in the regulation classifying the device unless the manufacturer has an approval under section 515 of the act (unless an exemption has been granted under section 520(g)(2) of the act). An approval under section 515 of the act consists of FDA's issuance of an order approving an application for premarket approval (PMA) for the device or declaring completed a product development protocol (PDP) for the device.

(a) Before FDA requires that a device commercially distributed before the enactment date of the amendments, or a device that has been found substantially equivalent to such a device, has an approval under section 515 of the act FDA must promulgate a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring such approval, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. Such a regulation under section 515(b) of the act shall not be effective during the grace period ending on the 90th day after its promulgation or on the last day of the 30th full calendar month after the regulation that classifies the device into class III is effective, whichever is later. See section 501(f)(2)(B) of the act. Accordingly, unless an effective date of the requirement for premarket approval is shown in the regulation for a device classified into class III in this part, the device may be commercially distributed without FDA's issuance of an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device. If FDA promulgates a regulation under section 515(b) of the act requiring premarket approval for a device, section 501(f)(1)(A) of the act applies to the device.

(b) Any new, not substantially equivalent, device introduced into commercial distribution on or after May 28, 1976, including a device formerly marketed that has been substantially altered, is classified by statute (section 513(f) of the act) into class III without any grace period and FDA must have issued an order approving a PMA or declaring completed a PDP for the device before the device is commercially distributed unless it is reclassified. If FDA knows that a device being commercially distributed may be a “new” device as defined in this section because of any new intended use or other reasons, FDA may codify the statutory classification of the device into class III for such new use. Accordingly, the regulation for such a class III device states that as of the enactment date of the amendments, May 28, 1976, the device must have an approval under section 515 of the act before commercial distribution.

The exemption from the requirement of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the act) for a generic type of class I or II device is only to the extent that the device has existing or reasonably foreseeable characteristics of commercially distributed devices within that generic type or, in the case of in vitro diagnostic devices, only to the extent that misdiagnosis as a result of using the device would not be associated with high morbidity or mortality. Accordingly, manufacturers of any commercially distributed class I or II device for which FDA has granted an exemption from the requirement of premarket notification must still submit a premarket notification to FDA before introducing or delivering for introduction into interstate commerce for commercial distribution the device when:

(a) The device is intended for a use different from the intended use of a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., the device is intended for a different medical purpose, or the device is intended for lay use where the former intended use was by health care professionals only;

(b) The modified device operates using a different fundamental scientific technology than a legally marketed device in that generic type of device; e.g., a surgical instrument cuts tissue with a laser beam rather than with a sharpened metal blade, or an in vitro diagnostic device detects or identifies infectious agents by using deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) probe or nucleic acid hybridization technology rather than culture or immunoassay technology; or

(c) The device is an in vitro device that is intended:

(1) For use in the diagnosis, monitoring, or screening of neoplastic diseases with the exception of immunohistochemical devices;

(2) For use in screening or diagnosis of familial or acquired genetic disorders, including inborn errors of metabolism;

(3) For measuring an analyte that serves as a surrogate marker for screening, diagnosis, or monitoring life-threatening diseases such as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), chronic or active hepatitis, tuberculosis, or myocardial infarction or to monitor therapy;

(4) For assessing the risk of cardiovascular diseases;

(5) For use in diabetes management;

(6) For identifying or inferring the identity of a microorganism directly from clinical material;

(7) For detection of antibodies to microorganisms other than immunoglobulin G (IgG) or IgG assays when the results are not qualitative, or are used to determine immunity, or the assay is intended for use in matrices other than serum or plasma;

(8) For noninvasive testing as defined in § 812.3(k) of this chapter; and

(9) For near patient testing (point of care).

(a) Identification. Dye and chemical solution stains for medical purposes are mixtures of synthetic or natural dyes or nondye chemicals in solutions used in staining cells and tissues for diagnostic histopathology, cytopathology, or hematology.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. These devices are also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. Immunohistochemistry test systems (IHC's) are in vitro diagnostic devices consisting of polyclonal or monoclonal antibodies labeled with directions for use and performance claims, which may be packaged with ancillary reagents in kits. Their intended use is to identify, by immunological techniques, antigens in tissues or cytologic specimens. Similar devices intended for use with flow cytometry devices are not considered IHC's.

(b) Classification of immunohistochemistry devices. (1) Class I (general controls). Except as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, these devices are exempt from the premarket notification requirements in part 807, subpart E of this chapter. This exemption applies to IHC's that provide the pathologist with adjunctive diagnostic information that may be incorporated into the pathologist's report, but that is not ordinarily reported to the clinician as an independent finding. These IHC's are used after the primary diagnosis of tumor (neoplasm) has been made by conventional histopathology using nonimmunologic histochemical stains, such as hematoxylin and eosin. Examples of class I IHC's are differentiation markers that are used as adjunctive tests to subclassify tumors, such as keratin.

(2) Class II (special control, guidance document: “FDA Guidance for Submission of Immunohistochemistry Applications to the FDA,” Center for Devices and Radiologic Health, 1998). These IHC's are intended for the detection and/or measurement of certain target analytes in order to provide prognostic or predictive data that are not directly confirmed by routine histopathologic internal and external control specimens. These IHC's provide the pathologist with information that is ordinarily reported as independent diagnostic information to the ordering clinician, and the claims associated with these data are widely accepted and supported by valid scientific evidence. Examples of class II IHC's are those intended for semiquantitative measurement of an analyte, such as hormone receptors in breast cancer.

(3) Class III (premarket approval). IHC's intended for any use not described in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.

(c) Date of PMA or notice of completion of a PDP is required. As of May 28, 1976, an approval under section 515 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is required for any device described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section before this device may be commercially distributed. See § 864.3.

(a) Identification. A cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) test system is a device used to detect a biomarker associated with CIN in human tissues. The device is indicated as an adjunct test and not to be used as a stand-alone device. The test results must be interpreted in the context of the patient's clinical history including, but not limited to, prior and current cervical biopsy results, Papanicolaou (Pap) test results, human papillomavirus (HPV) test results, and morphology on hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained sections. This device is not intended to detect the presence of HPV.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:

(i) The indications for use must specify the biomarker that is intended to be identified and its adjunct use (e.g., adjunct to examination of H&E stained slides) to improve consistency in the diagnosis of CIN.

(ii) Summary of professional society recommendations, as applicable.

(iii) A detailed device description including:

(A) A detailed description of all test components, including all provided reagents and required, but not provided, ancillary reagents.

(B) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or manuals.

(C) If applicable, detailed documentation of the device software, including, but not limited to, stand-alone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.

(D) A detailed description of appropriate positive and negative controls that are recommended or provided.

(E) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage.

(F) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure.

(G) A description of the assay cutoff (the medical decision point between positive and negative) or other relevant criteria that distinguishes positive and negative results, including the rationale for the chosen cutoff or other relevant criteria and results supporting validation of the cutoff.

(H) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.

(iv) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including:

(A) Analytical specificity studies such as, but not limited to, antibody characterization (e.g., Western Blot, peptide inhibition analysis), studies conducted on panels of normal tissues and neoplastic tissues, interference by endogenous and exogenous substances as well as cross-reactivity, as applicable.

(B) Device analytical sensitivity data generated by testing an adequate number of samples from individuals with the target condition including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantification, as applicable.

(C) Device precision/reproducibility data to evaluate within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-site, between-reader, within-reader and total precision, as applicable, using a panel of samples covering the device measuring range and/or the relevant disease categories (e.g. No CIN, CIN1, CIN2, CIN3, cervical cancer) and testing in replicates across multiple, nonconsecutive days.

(D) Device robustness/guardbanding studies to assess the tolerance ranges for various critical test and specimen parameters.

(E) Device stability data, including real-time stability and shipping stability under various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions.

(F) Data from a clinical study demonstrating clinical validity using well-characterized prospectively or retrospectively obtained clinical specimens, as appropriate, representative of the intended use population. The study must evaluate the consistency of the diagnosis of CIN, for example, by comparing the levels of agreements of diagnoses rendered by community pathologists to those rendered by a panel of expert pathologists. Agreement for each CIN diagnostic category (e.g., No CIN, CIN1, CIN2, CIN3, cancer) and for alternate diagnostic categories (e.g., No CIN, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)-histology, high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)-histology, cancer) between reference diagnosis by expert pathologist and community pathologist must be evaluated, as applicable. In addition, agreements for CIN binary categories as ≥CIN2 (i.e., CIN2 or CIN3 or cancer) and ≤CIN1 (i.e., No CIN or CIN1) between reference diagnosis by expert pathologist with H&E staining and community pathologist with H&E staining and agreements for alternate CIN binary categories as ≥HSIL-histology (i.e., HSIL-histology or cancer) and ≤LSIL-histology (i.e., No CIN or LSIL-histology) between reference diagnosis by an expert pathologist with H&E + [biomarker specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section] and a community pathologist with H&E + [biomarker specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section] must be evaluated and compared, as applicable.

(G) The staining performance of the device as determined by the community pathologists during review of the study slides must be evaluated. The staining performance criteria assessed must include overall staining acceptability, background staining acceptability, and morphology acceptability, as applicable.

(H) Appropriate training requirements for users, including interpretation manual, as applicable.

(I) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.

(2) The device's 21 CFR 809.10(b) compliant labeling must include a detailed description of the protocol, including the information described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, as applicable, and a detailed description of the performance studies performed and the summary of the results, including those that relate to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, as applicable.

(a) Identification. Lynch syndrome test systems are in vitro diagnostic tests for use with tumor tissue to identify previously diagnosed cancer patients at risk for having Lynch syndrome.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information, as appropriate:

(i) A detailed description of all test components, including all provided reagents, and required but not provided, ancillary reagents.

(ii) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, including illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or manuals.

(iii) Detailed documentation of the device software, including, but not limited to, standalone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software.

(iv) A detailed description of quality controls including appropriate positive and negative controls that are recommended or provided.

(v) Detailed specifications for sample collection, processing, and storage.

(vi) A detailed description of methodology and assay procedure.

(vii) A description of the assay cut-off (i.e., the medical decision point between positive and negative results) or other relevant criteria that distinguishes positive and negative results, or ordinal classes of marker expression, including the rationale for the chosen cut-off or other relevant criteria and results supporting validation of the cut-off.

(viii) Detailed specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting.

(ix) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including:

(A) Data from an appropriate study demonstrating clinical accuracy using well-characterized clinical specimens representative of the intended use population (i.e., concordance to Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) sequencing results of the Lynch syndrome associated genes or method comparison to the predicate device using samples with known alterations in genes representative of Lynch syndrome). Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.

(B) Appropriate device reproducibility data investigating all sources of variance (e.g., for distributed tests, data generated using a minimum of three sites, of which at least two sites must be external sites). Each site must perform testing over a minimum of 5 nonconsecutive days evaluating a sample panel that spans the claimed measuring range, and includes the clinical threshold. Pre-specified acceptance criteria must be provided and followed.

(C) Data demonstrating reader reproducibility, both within-reader and between-reader, assessed by three readers over 3 nonconsecutive days at each site, including a 2 week washout period between reads, as appropriate.

(D) Device precision data using clinical samples spanning the measuring range and controls to evaluate the within-lot, between-lot, within-run, between run, and total variation.

(E) Analytical specificity studies including as appropriate, western blots, peptide inhibition, testing in normal tissues and neoplastic tissues, interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, and cross-reactivity and cross contamination testing.

(F) Device analytical sensitivity data generated by testing an adequate number of samples from individuals with the target condition such that prevalence of the biomarker in the target population is established.

(G) Device stability data, including real-time stability and in-use stability, and stability evaluating various storage times, temperatures, and freeze-thaw conditions, as appropriate.

(H) The staining performance criteria assessed must include overall staining acceptability, background staining acceptability, and morphology acceptability, as appropriate.

(I) Appropriate training requirements for users, including interpretation manual, as applicable.

(J) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including a description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the instructions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.

(2) The device's § 809.10(b) of this chapter compliant labeling must include a detailed description of the protocol, including the information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (viii) of this section, as appropriate, and a detailed description of the performance studies performed and the summary of the results, including those that relate to paragraph (b)(1)(ix) of this section, as appropriate.

(a) Identification. An early growth response 1 (EGR1) gene fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) test system for specimen characterization is a device intended to detect the EGR1 probe target on chromosome 5q in bone marrow specimens from patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) or myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). The assay results are intended to be interpreted only by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist. These devices do not include automated systems that directly report results without review and interpretation by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist. These devices also do not include any device intended for use to select patient therapy, predict patient response to therapy, or to screen for disease as well as any device with a claim for a particular diagnosis, prognosis, monitoring, or risk assessment.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Premarket notification submissions must also include the following information:

(i) A detailed description of all probes included in the kit;

(ii) Purpose of each probe;

(iii) Probe molecular specificity;

(iv) Probe specificity;

(v) Probe limits;

(vi) Probe sensitivity;

(vii) Specification of required ancillary reagents, instrumentation, and equipment;

(viii) Specification of the specimen collection, processing, storage and slide preparation methods;

(ix) Specification of the assay procedure;

(x) Specification of control elements that are incorporated into the recommended testing procedures;

(xi) Specification of risk mitigation elements: Description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing;

(xii) Specification of the criteria for test result interpretation and reporting;

(xiii) Device analytical sensitivity data;

(xiv) Device analytical specificity data;

(xv) Device reference limit data;

(xvi) Device precision/reproducibility data;

(xvii) Device stability data to include:

(A) Real-time stability,

(B) Freeze-thaw stability,

(C) Transport and temperature stability,

(D) Post-hybridization signal stability,

(E) Photostability of probe, and

(xviii) Documentation that demonstrates the clinical validity of the device. The documentation must include data from clinical studies, a minimum of two peer-reviewed published literature references using the specific device seeking marketing clearance, or both. Documentation for the clinical studies and peer-reviewed published literature references cited must include the following elements:

(A) Documentation that the sponsor's probe was used in the literature reference,

(B) Number and type of specimens,

(C) Target population studied,

(D) Upper reference limit, and

(E) Range of positive probe results.

(2) Your § 809.10(b)(12) of this chapter compliant labeling must include a statement summarizing the data identified in paragraphs (b)(1)(xiii) through (xviii) of this section and a description of the studies supporting the information, including the pre-specified acceptance criteria for these performance studies, justification for the pre-specified acceptance criteria, and whether the pre-specified acceptance criteria were met.

(3) Your § 809.10 of this chapter compliant labeling must include:

(i) A warning that reads “The assay results are intended to be interpreted only by a qualified pathologist or cytogeneticist.”

(ii) A warning that reads “This device is not for high-risk uses such as selecting therapy, predicting therapeutic response or disease screening.”

(iii) A warning that reads “The use of this device for diagnosis, monitoring or risk assessment has not been established.”

(a) Identification. Synthetic cell and tissue culture media and components are substances that are composed entirely of defined components (e.g., amino acids, vitamins, inorganic salts) that are essential for the survival and development of cell lines of humans and other animals. This does not include tissue culture media for human ex vivo tissue and cell culture processing applications as described in § 876.5885 of this chapter.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. Cell and tissue culture supplies and equipment are devices that are used to examine, propagate, nourish, or grow cells and tissue cultures. These include such articles as slide culture chambers, perfusion and roller apparatus, cell culture suspension systems, and tissue culture flasks, disks, tubes, and roller bottles.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. If the devices are not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, they are exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. A chromosome culture kit is a device containing the necessary ingredients (e.g., Minimum Essential Media (MEM) of McCoy's 5A culture media, phytohemagglutinin, fetal calf serum, antibiotics, and heparin) used to culture tissues for diagnosis of congenital chromosome abnormalities.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. Cultured animal and human cells are in vitro cultivated cell lines from the tissue of humans or other animals which are used in various diagnostic procedures, particularly diagnostic virology and cytogenetic studies.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9.

(a) Identification. Mycoplasma detection media and components are used to detect and isolate mycoplasma pleuropneumonia-like organisms (PPLO), a common microbial contaminant in cell cultures.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. Animal and human sera are biological products, obtained from the blood of humans or other animals, that provide the necessary growth-promoting nutrients in a cell culture system.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. A balanced salt solution or formulation is a defined mixture of salts and glucose in a simple medium. This device is included as a necessary component of most cell culture systems. This media component controls for pH, osmotic pressure, energy source, and inorganic ions.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. Tissue processing equipment consists of devices used to prepare human tissue specimens for diagnostic histological examination by processing specimens through the various stages of decalcifying, infiltrating, sectioning, and mounting on microscope slides.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. The devices are also exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. A specimen transport and storage container, which may be empty or prefilled, is a device intended to contain biological specimens, body waste, or body exudate during storage and transport in order that the matter contained therein can be destroyed or used effectively for diagnostic examination. If prefilled, the device contains a fixative solution or other general purpose reagent to preserve the condition of a biological specimen added to the container. This section does not apply to specimen transport and storage containers that are intended for use as part of an over-the-counter test sample collection system for drugs of abuse testing.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to § 864.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180 of this chapter, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198 of this chapter, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. An over-the-counter (OTC) test sample collection system for drugs of abuse testing is a device intended to: Collect biological specimens (such as hair, urine, sweat, or saliva), outside of a medical setting and not on order of a health care professional (e.g., in the home, insurance, sports, or workplace setting); maintain the integrity of such specimens during storage and transport in order that the matter contained therein can be tested in a laboratory for the presence of drugs of abuse or their metabolites; and provide access to test results and counseling. This section does not apply to collection, transport, or laboratory testing of biological specimens for the presence of drugs of abuse or their metabolites that is performed to develop evidence for law enforcement purposes.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification requirements in part 807, subpart E of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9 if it is sold, distributed, and used in accordance with the restrictions set forth in § 809.40 of this chapter. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.198 of this chapter with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. A cytocentrifuge is a centrifuge used to concentrate cells from biological cell suspensions (e.g., cerebrospinal fluid) and to deposit these cells on a glass microscope slide for cytological examination.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. A device for sealing microsections is an automated instrument used to seal stained cells and microsections for histological and cytological examination.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. Microscopes and accessories are optical instruments used to enlarge images of specimens, preparations, and cultures for medical purposes. Variations of microscopes and accessories (through a change in the light source) used for medical purposes include the following:

(1) Phase contrast microscopes, which permit visualization of unstained preparations by altering the phase relationship of light that passes around the object and through the object.

(2) Fluorescense microscopes, which permit examination of specimens stained with fluorochromes that fluoresce under ultraviolet light.

(3) Inverted stage microscopes, which permit examination of tissue cultures or other biological specimens contained in bottles or tubes with the light source mounted above the specimen.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). These devices are exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. The whole slide imaging system is an automated digital slide creation, viewing, and management system intended as an aid to the pathologist to review and interpret digital images of surgical pathology slides. The system generates digital images that would otherwise be appropriate for manual visualization by conventional light microscopy.

(b) Classification. Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:

(1) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:

(i) The indications for use must specify the tissue specimen that is intended to be used with the whole slide imaging system and the components of the system.

(ii) A detailed description of the device and bench testing results at the component level, including for the following, as appropriate:

(A) Slide feeder;

(B) Light source;

(C) Imaging optics;

(D) Mechanical scanner movement;

(E) Digital imaging sensor;

(F) Image processing software;

(G) Image composition techniques;

(H) Image file formats;

(I) Image review manipulation software;

(J) Computer environment; and

(K) Display system.

(iii) Detailed bench testing and results at the system level, including for the following, as appropriate:

(A) Color reproducibility;

(B) Spatial resolution;

(C) Focusing test;

(D) Whole slide tissue coverage;

(E) Stitching error; and

(F) Turnaround time.

(iv) Detailed information demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, including, as appropriate:

(A) Precision to evaluate intra-system and inter-system precision using a comprehensive set of clinical specimens with defined, clinically relevant histologic features from various organ systems and diseases. Multiple whole slide imaging systems, multiple sites, and multiple readers must be included.

(B) Reproducibility data to evaluate inter-site variability using a comprehensive set of clinical specimens with defined, clinically relevant histologic features from various organ systems and diseases. Multiple whole slide imaging systems, multiple sites, and multiple readers must be included.

(C) Data from a clinical study to demonstrate that viewing, reviewing, and diagnosing digital images of surgical pathology slides prepared from tissue slides using the whole slide imaging system is non-inferior to using an optical microscope. The study should evaluate the difference in major discordance rates between manual digital (MD) and manual optical (MO) modalities when compared to the reference (e.g., main sign-out diagnosis).

(D) A detailed human factor engineering process must be used to evaluate the whole slide imaging system user interface(s).

(2) Labeling compliant with 21 CFR 809.10(b) must include the following:

(i) The intended use statement must include the information described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, as applicable, and a statement that reads, “It is the responsibility of a qualified pathologist to employ appropriate procedures and safeguards to assure the validity of the interpretation of images obtained using this device.”

(ii) A description of the technical studies and the summary of results, including those that relate to paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, as appropriate.

(iii) A description of the performance studies and the summary of results, including those that relate to paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, as appropriate.

(iv) A limiting statement that specifies that pathologists should exercise professional judgment in each clinical situation and examine the glass slides by conventional microscopy if there is doubt about the ability to accurately render an interpretation using this device alone.

(a) Identification. An automated slide stainer is a device used to stain histology, cytology, and hematology slides for diagnosis.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. An automated tissue processor is an automated system used to process tissue specimens for examination through fixation, dehydration, and infiltration.

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) A general purpose reagent is a chemical reagent that has general laboratory application, that is used to collect, prepare, and examine specimens from the human body for diagnostic purposes, and that is not labeled or otherwise intended for a specific diagnostic application. It may be either an individual substance, or multiple substances reformulated, which, when combined with or used in conjunction with an appropriate analyte specific reagent (ASR) and other general purpose reagents, is part of a diagnostic test procedure or system constituting a finished in vitro diagnostic (IVD) test. General purpose reagents are appropriate for combining with one or more than one ASR in producing such systems and include labware or disposable constituents of tests; but they do not include laboratory machinery, automated or powered systems. General purpose reagents include cytological preservatives, decalcifying reagents, fixative and adhesives, tissue processing reagents, isotonic solutions and pH buffers. Reagents used in tests for more than one individual chemical substance or ligand are general purpose reagents (e.g., Thermus aquaticus (TAQ) polymerase, substrates for enzyme immunoassay (EIA)).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). The device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9. If the device is not labeled or otherwise represented as sterile, it is exempt from the current good manufacturing practice requirements of the quality system regulation in part 820 of this chapter, with the exception of § 820.180, with respect to general requirements concerning records, and § 820.198, with respect to complaint files.

(a) Identification. Analyte specific reagents (ASR's) are antibodies, both polyclonal and monoclonal, specific receptor proteins, ligands, nucleic acid sequences, and similar reagents which, through specific binding or chemical reaction with substances in a specimen, are intended for use in a diagnostic application for identification and quantification of an individual chemical substance or ligand in biological specimens. ASR's that otherwise fall within this definition are not within the scope of subpart E of this part when they are sold to:

(1) In vitro diagnostic manufacturers; or

(2) Organizations that use the reagents to make tests for purposes other than providing diagnostic information to patients and practitioners, e.g., forensic, academic, research, and other nonclinical laboratories.

(b) Classification. (1) Class I (general controls). Except as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, these devices are exempt from the premarket notification requirements in part 807, subpart E of this chapter.

(2) Class II (special controls/guidance documents), when the analyte is used in blood banking tests that have been classified as class II devices (e.g., certain cytomegalovirus serological and treponema pallidum nontreponemal test reagents). Guidance Documents:

(3) Class III (premarket approval), when:

(i) The analyte is intended as a component in a test intended for use in the diagnosis of a contagious condition that is highly likely to result in a fatal outcome and prompt, accurate diagnosis offers the opportunity to mitigate the public health impact of the condition (e.g., human immunodeficiency virus (HIV/AIDS)or tuberculosis (TB)); or

(ii) The analyte is intended as a component in a test intended for use in donor screening for conditions for which FDA has recommended or required testing in order to safeguard the blood supply or establish the safe use of blood and blood products (e.g., tests for hepatitis or tests for identifying blood groups).

(c) Date of 510(k), or date of PMA or notice of completion of a product development protocol is required. (1) Preamendments ASR's; No effective date has been established for the requirement for premarket approval for the device described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. See § 864.3.

(2) For postamendments ASR's; November 23, 1998.

(d) Restrictions. Restrictions on the sale, distribution and use of ASR's are set forth in § 809.30 of this chapter.

(a) Identification. Enzyme preparations are products that are used in the histopathology laboratory for the following purposes:

(1) To disaggregate tissues and cells already in established cultures for preparation into subsequent cultures (e.g., trypsin);

(2) To disaggregate fluid specimens for cytological examination (e.g., papain for gastric lavage or trypsin for sputum liquefaction);

(3) To aid in the selective staining of tissue specimens (e.g., diastase for glycogen determination).

(b) Classification. Class I (general controls). This device is exempt from the premarket notification procedures in subpart E of part 807 of this chapter subject to the limitations in § 864.9.

(a) Identification. An automated cell counter is a fully-automated or semi-automated device used to count red blood cells, white blood cells, or blood platelets using a sample of the patient's peripheral blood (blood circulating in one of the body's extremities, such as the arm). These devices may also measure hemoglobin or hematocrit and may also calculate or measure one or more of the red cell indices (the erythrocyte mean corpuscular volume, the mean corpuscular hemoglobin, or the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration). These devices may use either an electronic particle counting method or an optical counting method.

(b) Classification. Class II (performance standards).